Human Health and Disease NEET CBT Mock Test

Zoology · Chapter test · 25 questions
Human Health and Disease NEET CBT Mock Test

25 questions in 25 minutes on the NTA computer-based test interface, all from Human Health and Disease. +4 / -1 marking, instant score, full solutions. Free, no login.

A chapter test is the fastest honest check on whether a chapter has actually landed. This one draws 25 questions from Human Health and Disease, of which 17 are real NEET previous-year questions and 6 sit at the harder end of the bank. Sit it in one 25-minute block, the way you would in the hall.

Revising first? Read the Human Health and Disease chapter notes, then come back and take this test to check it stuck.

NEET goes computer-based from 2027. Until NTA releases the 2027 bulletin, this mock follows the 2025-26 pattern: 180 questions, +4 / -1.

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Mock CBT Test · NEET 2027NEET 2027 CBT Mock Test
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

Duration: 180 minutes · 180 questions · 720 marks maximum

  1. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right of the screen will display the remaining time. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself.
  2. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:
You have not visited the question yet. You have not answered the question. You have answered the question. You have NOT answered, but marked for review. Answered & Marked for Review (will be considered for evaluation).
  1. Each correct answer carries +4 marks; each incorrect answer carries −1 mark. Un-attempted questions carry no marks.
  2. Navigate between sections using the section tabs, and between questions using SAVE & NEXT or the Question Palette.
  3. Your answers are saved in this browser, so an accidental refresh will not wipe a test in progress.
Mock CBT Test · NEET 2027NEET 2027 CBT Mock
InstructionsQuestion Paper Time Left : 180:00
Question No. 1
(+4, −1)

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NEET CBT mock test: common questions

How many questions are in this Human Health and Disease mock test?

25 questions in 25 minutes, marked +4 for a correct answer and -1 for a wrong one, exactly like the real paper. 17 of them are NEET previous-year questions.

Is this the same interface as the real NEET CBT?

Yes. On-screen countdown, colour-coded question palette, Save & Next, Clear Response and Mark for Review, then an instant score with full solutions.

Should I take this before or after revising Human Health and Disease?

Both, and that is the point. Take it cold to find out what you actually do not know, revise from the chapter notes, then retake it to confirm the gap closed.

All 25 questions with answers and solutions

The complete paper in text form, with the correct option and a worked explanation for every question. Sit the timed test above first: the score is only worth having if you earn it. Then open this to revise, or to re-read a question you got wrong without replaying the whole paper.

Show all 25 questions with answers and solutions

Zoology

Questions 1 to 25 · 25 questions

  1. Q1
    Hybridoma cells are:
    1. A product of spore formation in bacteria
    2. Hybrid cells resulting from the fusion of an antibody-producing B-cell with a myeloma cell
    3. Nervous cells of a frog
    4. Cells that only carry oncogenes

    Answer: (B) Hybrid cells resulting from the fusion of an antibody-producing B-cell with a myeloma cell

    A hybridoma is formed by fusing a normal antibody-producing B-lymphocyte with a myeloma (cancer) cell; the hybrid both divides indefinitely and secretes a single (monoclonal) antibody. It is not a bacterial spore, a frog nerve cell, or merely an oncogene-carrying cell.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  2. Q2
    The antibodies are chemically:
    1. Lipids
    2. Germs
    3. Proteins
    4. Carbohydrates

    Answer: (C) Proteins

    Antibodies are glycoproteins (predominantly protein) secreted by plasma cells; they bind antigens and agglutinate them. They are not carbohydrates, lipids or living germs.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  3. Q3
    Which of the following pairs of diseases is caused by viruses?
    1. AIDS and syphilis
    2. Typhoid and tetanus
    3. Cholera and tuberculosis
    4. Rabies and mumps

    Answer: (D) Rabies and mumps

    Rabies (rabies virus, a paramyxo-type rhabdovirus) and mumps (a paramyxovirus) are both viral. Cholera/TB and typhoid/tetanus are bacterial pairs, and in the AIDS/syphilis pair syphilis is bacterial (Treponema), so only A is a fully viral pair.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  4. Q4
    Ringworm in humans is caused by:
    1. Fungi
    2. Bacteria
    3. Nematodes
    4. Viruses

    Answer: (A) Fungi

    Ringworm is a fungal skin infection caused by dermatophytes such as Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton, despite the misleading name. It is not caused by a worm/nematode, bacterium or virus.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  5. Q5
    Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in:
    1. Clotting of blood
    2. Oxygen transport in the blood
    3. Defence mechanisms of the body
    4. Osmotic balance of body fluids

    Answer: (C) Defence mechanisms of the body

    Plasma globulins include the immunoglobulins (antibodies), so they are primarily involved in the body’s defence. Osmotic balance is mainly albumin’s role, oxygen transport is haemoglobin’s, and clotting is driven by fibrinogen and clotting factors.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  6. Q6
    The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from:
    1. Papaver
    2. Atropa
    3. Curcuma
    4. Rauwolfia (Sarpagandha)

    Answer: (D) Rauwolfia (Sarpagandha)

    Ajmalicine is obtained from Rauwolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha, family Apocynaceae) and is used to lower blood pressure. Atropa yields atropine, Papaver yields opioids, and Curcuma yields curcumin – not ajmalicine.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  7. Q7
    MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) constitutes about what percentage of the lymphoid tissue in the human body?
    1. 50%
    2. 10%
    3. 20%
    4. 70%

    Answer: (A) 50%

    MALT lines the major tracts (respiratory, digestive and urinogenital) and makes up roughly 50% of the total lymphoid tissue in the human body.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  8. Q8
    Injecting preformed antibodies, as in anti-tetanus serum (ATS), is an example of:
    1. Active immunity
    2. Passive immunity
    3. Autoimmunity
    4. Innate immunity

    Answer: (B) Passive immunity

    ATS supplies ready-made antibodies, giving immediate but short-lived protection without memory – this is passive immunity.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  9. Q9
    Which of the following correctly distinguishes passive from active immunity?
    1. Active immunity gives immediate protection without antigen exposure
    2. Passive immunity is long-lasting and develops memory cells
    3. Passive immunity gives immediate ready-made antibodies but is short-lived and has no memory
    4. Active immunity uses injected antibodies

    Answer: (C) Passive immunity gives immediate ready-made antibodies but is short-lived and has no memory

    Passive immunity supplies preformed antibodies – protection is immediate but short-lived with no memory. Active immunity requires antigen exposure, develops slowly but is long-lasting with memory.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  10. Q10
    The most virulent (malignant) malaria in humans is caused by:
    1. Plasmodium falciparum
    2. Plasmodium malariae
    3. Plasmodium vivax
    4. Plasmodium ovale

    Answer: (A) Plasmodium falciparum

    Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant malaria, the most severe and potentially fatal form.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  11. Q11
    Match correctly: (i) Ascariasis (ii) Filariasis (iii) Common cold (iv) Amoebiasis with their agents: (1) Rhinovirus (2) Wuchereria (3) Ascaris (4) Entamoeba histolytica.
    1. i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
    2. i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
    3. i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
    4. i-1, ii-4, iii-3, iv-2

    Answer: (B) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4

    Ascariasis – Ascaris (roundworm); Filariasis – Wuchereria; Common cold – Rhinovirus; Amoebiasis – Entamoeba histolytica.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  12. Q12
    Which mode of transmission is correctly matched?
    1. Common cold – contaminated water
    2. Pneumonia – droplet/airborne
    3. AIDS – mosquito bite
    4. Malaria – direct sexual contact

    Answer: (B) Pneumonia – droplet/airborne

    Pneumonia spreads through droplets/aerosols. Common cold is airborne (not waterborne), malaria is vector-borne (not sexual), and AIDS is NOT transmitted by mosquitoes.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  13. Q13
    If you suspect a major deficiency of antibodies in a person, which blood fraction would you test as confirmatory evidence?
    1. Serum globulins
    2. Serum albumins
    3. Fibrinogen in plasma
    4. Haemocytes

    Answer: (A) Serum globulins

    Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are part of the serum globulin fraction (gamma-globulins). So an antibody deficiency is confirmed by testing serum globulins. Fibrinogen relates to clotting, albumin maintains osmotic pressure, and haemocytes are blood cells – none carry antibodies.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  14. Q14
    Which of the following is an opiate (opium-derived) narcotic?
    1. Bhang
    2. Heroin
    3. Nicotine
    4. Charas

    Answer: (B) Heroin

    Heroin is an opium (Papaver somniferum) derivative and the most dangerous opiate narcotic. Bhang and charas are cannabinoids (from Cannabis), and nicotine is a tobacco stimulant – none are opiate narcotics.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  15. Q15
    Rejection of a transplanted organ (graft rejection) is mediated mainly by:
    1. Humoral immunity (B-cells/antibodies)
    2. Complement proteins
    3. Cell-mediated immunity (T-cells)
    4. Interferons

    Answer: (C) Cell-mediated immunity (T-cells)

    Graft rejection is a function of cell-mediated immunity (CMI), in which T-lymphocytes recognise and destroy the foreign tissue.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  16. Q16
    The letter ‘T’ in T-lymphocyte refers to the:
    1. Thalamus
    2. Thymus
    3. Tonsil
    4. Thyroid

    Answer: (B) Thymus

    T-lymphocytes are so named because they mature in the thymus gland. The thyroid and thalamus are endocrine/brain structures, and the tonsil is lymphoid tissue but not where T-cells mature.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  17. Q17
    Carcinoma refers to:
    1. Malignant tumours of the colon only
    2. Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane (epithelial tissue)
    3. Benign tumours of the connective tissue
    4. Malignant tumours of the connective tissue

    Answer: (B) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane (epithelial tissue)

    Carcinomas are malignant tumours arising from epithelial tissue (skin, mucous membranes and glands), e.g. breast, lung and stomach cancers. Malignant tumours of connective tissue are sarcomas, so options about connective tissue and the colon-only/benign options are wrong.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  18. Q18
    Botulism, caused by Clostridium botulinum, primarily affects the:
    1. Spleen
    2. Intestine
    3. Lymph glands
    4. Neuromuscular junction

    Answer: (D) Neuromuscular junction

    Clostridium botulinum produces a potent exotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, preventing nerve-to-muscle transmission and causing paralysis. It does not primarily target the spleen, intestine or lymph glands.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  19. Q19
    Common cold differs from pneumonia in that:
    1. Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
    2. The pneumonia pathogen infects the alveoli whereas the common cold affects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs
    3. Pneumonia can be prevented by a vaccine whereas common cold has no effective vaccine
    4. Pneumonia is caused by a virus while common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae

    Answer: (B) The pneumonia pathogen infects the alveoli whereas the common cold affects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs

    Pneumonia (bacterial – Streptococcus/Haemophilus) infects the alveoli of the lungs, filling them with fluid, whereas the common cold (rhinovirus) affects the nose and upper respiratory passage but NOT the lungs. Option A reverses the cause types, B is not the defining difference, and C swaps the causative agents (pneumonia is bacterial, cold is viral).

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  20. Q20
    The vector for sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) is the:
    1. Sand fly
    2. Fruit fly
    3. Tse-tse fly
    4. House fly

    Answer: (C) Tse-tse fly

    African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma and transmitted by the tse-tse fly (Glossina). The sand fly transmits kala-azar (Leishmania), the housefly is a mechanical carrier of gut infections, and the fruit fly transmits no human disease.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  21. Q21
    Who discovered the malarial parasite Plasmodium in the red blood cells of human beings?
    1. Charles Laveran
    2. Gregor Mendel
    3. Stephen Hales
    4. Ronald Ross

    Answer: (A) Charles Laveran

    In 1880 Charles Laveran discovered Plasmodium in human RBCs. Ronald Ross later (1897) discovered the parasite’s oocysts in the mosquito stomach and established mosquito transmission. Mendel (genetics) and Hales (plant physiology) are unrelated.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  22. Q22
    The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body during a mosquito bite is the:
    1. Male gametocyte
    2. Trophozoite
    3. Sporozoite
    4. Female gametocyte

    Answer: (C) Sporozoite

    Sporozoites are the infective stage stored in the salivary glands of the female Anopheles mosquito; they are injected into the human blood during a bite, then enter liver cells. Gametocytes are taken UP by the mosquito from human blood (not injected), and trophozoites are an intra-RBC stage formed later inside the human host.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  23. Q23
    Concanavalin A is a:
    1. A pigment
    2. An essential oil
    3. An alkaloid
    4. A lectin

    Answer: (D) A lectin

    Concanavalin A is a lectin – a carbohydrate-binding protein and T-cell mitogen used to activate lymphocytes. It is not an oil, pigment or alkaloid.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease · NEET previous-year question

  24. Q24
    Normal cells show contact inhibition while cancer cells do not. This means cancer cells:
    1. Continue to divide in an uncontrolled manner, piling up into masses
    2. Stop dividing when they touch neighbouring cells
    3. Cannot divide at all
    4. Divide only once and die

    Answer: (A) Continue to divide in an uncontrolled manner, piling up into masses

    Contact inhibition stops normal cells from dividing once they contact each other. Cancer cells lose this property, dividing uncontrollably to form tumours.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

  25. Q25
    Which of the following is a non-infectious disease?
    1. Cancer
    2. Malaria
    3. Typhoid
    4. AIDS

    Answer: (A) Cancer

    Cancer is non-infectious (not caused by a transmissible pathogen). Typhoid, malaria and AIDS are infectious diseases caused by pathogens.

    Chapter: Human Health and Disease

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