NEET UG 2026 — Prediction Paper
Set 3 | Full-Length Practice Paper
Based on NEW NTA 2026 Exam Pattern | ChapterNotes.in
General Instructions (NEW 2026 Pattern)
- This paper contains 180 questions divided into 4 subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology — 45 questions each.
- All questions are compulsory. Section B / optional questions have been removed by NTA from 2025 onwards. There is no choice.
- Each correct answer carries +4 marks. Each wrong answer carries −1 mark. Unanswered questions carry 0 marks.
- Total duration: 3 hours (180 minutes).
- Use of calculator, log tables, or any electronic device is NOT permitted.
- This is a pen-paper OMR-based offline exam.
- Assume standard values: g = 10 m/s², c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C, k = 9 × 10⁹ N·m²/C², R = 8.314 J/K·mol unless stated otherwise.
- Set 3 angle: Focused on numerical & application — multi-step problems, reaction sequences, calculation-heavy.
PHYSICS
45 Questions | 180 Marks | All Compulsory
Physics (Q1 to Q45)
All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
A long straight wire carries a current of 10 A along the +x-axis. The magnetic field at a point P located 5 cm from the wire on the +y-axis is:
An electron moves with velocity 2 × 10⁶ m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.5 T. The radius of its circular path is:
A coil of 200 turns and area 0.01 m² is placed in a magnetic field that changes uniformly from 0.1 T to 0.5 T in 0.2 s. The induced EMF is:
In an LR series circuit, L = 0.2 H and R = 10 Ω. The time constant is:
In a series LCR circuit, R = 30 Ω, X_L = 80 Ω, X_C = 40 Ω. The phase angle by which voltage leads current is:
Two point charges +4 μC and −1 μC are placed 30 cm apart. The point on the line joining them where the electric potential is zero (other than infinity) is at a distance from +4 μC of:
A 4 μF capacitor is charged to 100 V and then disconnected from the battery. It is then connected in parallel with an uncharged 6 μF capacitor. The energy lost is:
Four point charges, each +q, are placed at the four corners of a square of side a. The electric potential at the centre is:
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 μF is connected to a 10 V battery. Keeping it connected, the plate separation is doubled. The new energy stored is:
A potentiometer wire of length 10 m has resistance 5 Ω and is connected in series with a battery of EMF 2 V and internal resistance 5 Ω. The potential gradient on the wire is:
A 60 W and a 100 W bulb, both rated for 220 V, are connected in series across a 220 V supply. The actual power consumed by the 60 W bulb is approximately:
Twelve identical resistors each of resistance R are connected to form a cube. The equivalent resistance between two diagonally opposite corners (body diagonal) is:
A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω gives full-scale deflection at 2 mA. To convert it into an ammeter of range 5 A, the shunt resistance required is approximately:
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms a real image of magnification −2. The object distance is:
A ray of light is incident on a glass slab (n = 1.5) at 60°. The angle of refraction is approximately:
A telescope has an objective of focal length 100 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. In normal adjustment, its magnifying power and length are:
In Young’s double slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled and the screen distance is halved. The new fringe width compared to the original is:
A hydrogen atom in the ground state absorbs 12.75 eV of energy. The principal quantum number of the excited state reached is:
The wavelength of the second line of the Balmer series of hydrogen (n=4 to n=2) is approximately (R_H = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹):
The kinetic energy of an electron in the third Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is:
Light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a metal of work function 1.9 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is approximately (hc = 1240 eV·nm):
In a nuclear reactor, the binding energy per nucleon is 7.6 MeV for ²³⁵U and 8.5 MeV for the fission products (mass number ~117). Approximate energy released per fission is:
A block of mass 5 kg is placed on an inclined plane (μ = 0.2) making 30° with horizontal. The acceleration of the block down the incline is (g = 10 m/s²):
A bullet of mass 20 g moving at 400 m/s embeds itself in a wooden block of mass 1.98 kg suspended by a string. The height to which the block rises is (g = 10 m/s²):
A force F = 6t N acts on a body of mass 2 kg initially at rest. The velocity at t = 4 s is:
A block of mass 4 kg moves with initial speed 10 m/s on a rough surface (μ = 0.25) and comes to rest. The work done by friction is (g = 10 m/s²):
A particle of mass 2 kg is projected vertically upward with KE 100 J. Air drag does 20 J of negative work during ascent. The maximum height reached is (g = 10 m/s²):
A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 0.1 m rolls without slipping with linear speed 5 m/s. Its total kinetic energy is:
A flywheel of moment of inertia 2 kg·m² is rotating at 60 rad/s. A constant torque of 4 N·m opposes the motion. Time taken to stop is:
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process: A→B (isobaric expansion), B→C (isochoric cooling), C→A (isothermal compression). If work done in A→B is +600 J and heat absorbed in C→A is −400 J, the net work in the cycle is:
A Carnot engine operates between 400 K and 300 K. If it absorbs 800 J from the source, the work done is:
Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas are heated at constant pressure from 300 K to 400 K. Heat supplied is approximately (R = 8.314 J/K·mol):
A particle executes SHM with amplitude 5 cm and time period 2 s. Its maximum acceleration is:
A wave on a string is described by y = 0.02 sin(2πx − 100πt) m. Speed of the wave is:
An open organ pipe of length 0.5 m has its first overtone (second harmonic) at frequency (v_sound = 340 m/s):
A steel wire of length 4 m and cross-sectional area 2 × 10⁻⁶ m² is stretched by 1 mm. If Young’s modulus of steel is 2 × 10¹¹ Pa, the force applied is:
A spherical drop of radius 1 mm breaks into 1000 identical droplets. If surface tension is 0.075 N/m, the energy required is approximately:
A Zener diode has breakdown voltage 6 V. It is connected in series with a 100 Ω resistor across an unregulated 9 V supply. The current through the Zener if load draws 20 mA is:
In a half-wave rectifier with input frequency 50 Hz, the ripple frequency at output is:
The time period of a satellite orbiting close to Earth’s surface (R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, g = 10 m/s²) is approximately:
A body weighs 200 N on the surface of Earth. Its weight at a height equal to half the Earth’s radius is:
A projectile is fired with initial velocity (3î + 4ĵ) × 10 m/s. Its horizontal range is (g = 10 m/s²):
A particle moves along x-axis with velocity v = 6 + 4t m/s. The displacement between t = 1 s and t = 3 s is:
The electric field of a plane EM wave is E = 50 sin(ωt − kz) V/m along x-axis. The peak magnetic field magnitude is:
In a screw gauge, the pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular scale. The least count is:
CHEMISTRY
45 Questions | 180 Marks | All Compulsory
Chemistry (Q46 to Q90)
All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
The empirical formula of a compound is CH₂O and its molar mass is 180 g/mol. The molecular formula is:
How many grams of NaOH (M = 40) are required to prepare 250 mL of 0.2 M solution?
The energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of the H atom is (E₁ = −13.6 eV):
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron (m = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg) moving at 2 × 10⁶ m/s is approximately (h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s):
Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
The number of lone pairs on the central atom in XeF₂ is:
The correct order of bond angle is:
In which of the following molecules does the central atom undergo sp³d² hybridisation?
For an ideal gas undergoing isothermal expansion:
For a reaction, ΔH = −80 kJ/mol and ΔS = −0.2 kJ/K/mol. The temperature above which the reaction becomes non-spontaneous is:
Vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 100 and 200 mm Hg respectively at 298 K. If 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B form an ideal solution, the total vapour pressure is:
The molal elevation constant of water is 0.52 K kg/mol. The boiling point of a solution containing 6 g of urea (M = 60) in 200 g of water is:
For the reaction 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), Kc = 4. If 1 mole each of SO₂ and O₂ are mixed in 1 L vessel, the degree of dissociation expression at equilibrium uses:
The solubility product of AgCl is 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁰. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NaCl solution is:
For the cell Zn|Zn²⁺(0.01M)||Cu²⁺(1M)|Cu, E°_cell = 1.10 V. The cell EMF at 298 K is (use 0.0591/n log):
How long (in seconds) must a current of 2 A be passed through molten NaCl to deposit 4.6 g of Na (atomic mass 23)? (F = 96500 C/mol)
The molar conductivity of a 0.001 M weak acid HA is 50 S cm² mol⁻¹. If Λ°ₘ = 500 S cm² mol⁻¹, the degree of dissociation is:
For a first-order reaction, the rate constant is 6.93 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹. The time required for 75% completion is (ln 2 = 0.693):
The rate of a reaction at 300 K is 1.0 × 10⁻³ mol/L/s. At 320 K the rate is 8.0 × 10⁻³ mol/L/s. Using log scale, activation energy (R = 8.314 J/K/mol; log 8 = 0.903) is approximately:
Which of the following has the highest first ionisation enthalpy?
In boric acid (H₃BO₃), each B atom is:
Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus has P in the +3 oxidation state?
Among the noble gases, the one used to fill weather balloons (after H₂) is:
Acidified KMnO₄ on reaction with oxalic acid in hot solution gives:
In K₂Cr₂O₇, the number of Cr–O–Cr bridges is:
The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids is:
The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] is:
The number of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃] is:
In [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻, the hybridisation, number of unpaired electrons, and magnetic nature are:
For an octahedral d⁵ complex with weak-field ligand, the crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) is:
Reaction of CH₃CH₂Br with aqueous KOH gives CH₃CH₂OH, while with alcoholic KOH gives:
In the reaction sequence: CH₃CH₂Br ──KCN──> A ──H₃O⁺/Δ──> B; the product B is:
Treatment of propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide gives mainly:
Reaction sequence: CH₃CHO ──(i) CH₃MgBr; (ii) H₃O⁺──> A. Product A is:
In the reaction: Benzene ──CH₃COCl/AlCl₃──> A ──Zn-Hg/HCl──> B; product B is:
Williamson ether synthesis: t-butoxide + ethyl bromide gives mainly:
Reimer–Tiemann reaction of phenol gives:
Reaction sequence: CH₃CH₂OH ──PCC──> A ──NaOH/Δ then H⁺──> B. The product B is (aldol):
HCHO + conc. NaOH gives (Cannizzaro reaction):
Wolff–Kishner reduction of acetone gives:
Reaction sequence: C₆H₅NO₂ ──Sn/HCl──> A ──NaNO₂/HCl, 273 K──> B. The product B is:
Hofmann bromamide reaction converts CH₃CONH₂ to:
The disaccharide that does NOT show mutarotation is:
Which vitamin deficiency causes pernicious anaemia?
The base which is present in DNA but not in RNA is:
BOTANY
45 Questions | 180 Marks | All Compulsory
Botany (Q91 to Q135)
All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.3. What is the frequency of heterozygous individuals?
In maize, a cross between a tall plant (TT) and a dwarf plant (tt) produces F1. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, what fraction of F2 will be homozygous dominant?
In the Calvin cycle, fixation of 6 molecules of CO₂ to form one molecule of glucose requires:
In a grassland ecosystem, if the producers fix 1000 J of energy, how much energy (approximately) will be available to secondary consumers as per the 10% law?
In recombinant DNA technology, the enzyme that joins the sticky ends of DNA fragments is:
A plant heterozygous for two genes (AaBb) when self-pollinated produced 1600 offspring. How many are expected to be of genotype aabb?
For the synthesis of one molecule of glucose during photosynthesis, how many turns of the Calvin cycle are required?
In an experiment, 84% of individuals in a population are of dominant phenotype and 16% recessive. As per Hardy-Weinberg, the frequency of dominant allele (p) is:
Which of the following restriction enzymes is isolated from Haemophilus influenzae and recognises the sequence AAGCTT?
In a population of 1000 mice, 360 are homozygous recessive (bb) for a coat colour gene. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the number of heterozygous individuals is approximately:
In glycolysis, the substrate-level phosphorylation steps yield how many ATP molecules per glucose (gross)?
In a pyramid of energy with 4 trophic levels, if producers contain 10,000 kcal, the energy at the tertiary consumer level (top carnivore) will be:
In Drosophila, white-eye colour is X-linked recessive. A cross between a white-eyed female (XʷXʷ) and a red-eyed male (X⁺Y) produces:
The total number of ATP produced from one molecule of NADH and one FADH₂ in oxidative phosphorylation is:
In E. coli, if the lac operon has a defective i-gene (i⁻), the result will be:
If a DNA molecule contains 30% adenine, the percentage of guanine will be:
Plasmid pBR322 used as a cloning vector contains the gene rop, which codes for:
The number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200 grains of pollen is:
In a logistic growth equation dN/dt = rN(K−N/K), if N = K, the rate of population growth is:
In Agrobacterium tumefaciens-mediated gene transfer, the vector used is:
In an angiosperm, the number of mitotic divisions required in the megaspore mother cell to form a mature embryo sac (Polygonum type) is:
In a typical diploid (2n=20) cell undergoing mitosis, how many chromatids are present at metaphase?
A diploid cell with 24 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. The number of chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis II will be:
In a cell undergoing mitosis, if the duration of S phase is 8 hours and total cell cycle is 24 hours, what fraction of the cycle is spent in DNA synthesis?
The cell organelle that contains its own DNA, ribosomes (70S type), and divides by fission is:
In an E. coli cell, if generation time is 20 minutes, the number of cells produced from one cell after 2 hours under ideal conditions will be:
Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid nitrogen at:
In Krebs cycle, oxidation of one molecule of acetyl-CoA produces:
If 100 microspore mother cells undergo meiosis, the number of pollen grains formed and the number of male gametes available for fertilisation are:
In a chasmogamous flower with bisexual condition, if all anthers are removed before dehiscence, this technique is called:
Which of the following bacteria is used as a biofertiliser for non-leguminous plants and forms loose association with roots?
Statins used for lowering blood cholesterol are obtained from:
The non-reducing sugar sucrose is a disaccharide made up of:
If the velocity of an enzyme-catalysed reaction at substrate concentration [S] = Km is V, then Vmax of the reaction is:
The stomatal aperture opens when:
In dicot stems, the cambial ring producing secondary xylem inwards and secondary phloem outwards is composed of:
During cyclic photophosphorylation, the number of ATP molecules generated per electron pair (without NADPH formation) is approximately:
The tissue that arises from the pericycle and gives rise to lateral roots is:
In Chlamydomonas, sexual reproduction takes place by formation of:
Which of the following gymnosperms is the source of the anti-cancer drug taxol?
Lichens are an example of mutualism between:
In a virus, the protein coat that encloses the nucleic acid is called:
The species-area relationship described by Alexander von Humboldt follows the equation log S = log C + Z log A. The slope Z (regression coefficient) for most groups lies in the range:
In the Cuscuta plant, the modified roots that absorb nutrients from the host are:
The plant hormone that delays senescence and breaks apical dominance by promoting lateral bud growth is:
ZOOLOGY
45 Questions | 180 Marks | All Compulsory
Zoology (Q136 to Q180)
All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
A person inhales 500 mL of air per breath at 12 breaths per minute. What is his pulmonary ventilation per minute?
If TV = 500 mL, IRV = 2500 mL and ERV = 1100 mL, the Inspiratory Capacity (IC) of the person is:
If a person’s stroke volume is 70 mL and heart rate is 75 beats/min, his cardiac output will be:
A man with blood group AB marries a woman with blood group O. What are the possible blood groups of their children?
In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt × Tt), the phenotypic ratio in F2 is:
A dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes (RrYy × RrYy) gives a phenotypic ratio of:
A colour-blind man marries a woman homozygous normal for vision. The probability of their sons being colour-blind is:
In a pedigree, an unaffected couple has an affected daughter. The trait is most likely:
A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of a healthy individual is approximately:
If 180 L of filtrate is formed daily but only 1.5 L of urine is excreted, the percentage of filtrate reabsorbed is approximately:
Which contraceptive method has the lowest failure rate among reversible methods?
Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception?
Saheli, a non-steroidal contraceptive pill developed by CDRI, is taken:
If allele frequency of a recessive trait is q = 0.1, the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (q²) in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is:
If p = 0.6 and q = 0.4 in a population, the frequency of heterozygotes (2pq) is:
Darwin’s finches on the Galapagos islands evolved different beak shapes due to:
A patient cannot digest fats efficiently. The most likely cause is:
Calculate the BMR contribution if a 70 kg adult uses 2 kcal/kg/hr at rest. Daily basal energy expenditure ≈
ECG of a patient shows a prolonged Q-T interval. This indicates abnormality in:
If a person has a vital capacity of 4500 mL and tidal volume of 500 mL, the sum of IRV + ERV equals:
In humans, the diaphysis (shaft) of long bones is composed mainly of:
Calculation: if I-band is 2 μm at rest and shortens to 1 μm during contraction, the sarcomere has shortened by:
Joints between phalanges are:
Which of the following gives rise to insulin produced by recombinant DNA technology?
Bt cotton is resistant to:
Gene therapy was first attempted in 1990 on a 4-year-old girl with:
AIDS is diagnosed by which test?
Cocaine is obtained from:
Antibodies (IgG) are made up of:
Pneumonia in humans is caused by:
In Periplaneta, the gizzard (proventriculus) is involved in:
Number of ovarioles in each ovary of female cockroach is:
Which animal has water-vascular system?
Which class of vertebrates has 3-chambered heart with incompletely divided ventricle?
Areolar tissue is a type of:
Cardiac muscles are:
Hyperthyroidism causes:
Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficiency of:
An action potential at axon hillock is initiated when membrane potential reaches:
Number of mitotic divisions required to produce 128 cells from one cell is:
From one primary spermatocyte, the number of functional sperms produced after meiosis is:
Crossing over takes place at what stage of meiosis I?
Population growth equation dN/dt = rN(K−N)/K describes:
The coenzyme NAD contains the vitamin:
A man heterozygous for haemophilia gene is impossible because:
PHYSICS — Answer Key (Q1–Q45)
CHEMISTRY — Answer Key (Q46–Q90)
BOTANY — Answer Key (Q91–Q135)
ZOOLOGY — Answer Key (Q136–Q180)