NEET UG 2026 Prediction Paper (Set 2) — Free with Answer Key

NEET UG 2026 — Prediction Paper

Set 2 | Full-Length Practice Paper

Based on NEW NTA 2026 Exam Pattern | ChapterNotes.in

Total Questions

180

Maximum Marks

720

Duration

3 hours

Marking

+4 / −1

General Instructions (NEW 2026 Pattern)

  1. This paper contains 180 questions divided into 4 subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology — 45 questions each.
  2. All questions are compulsory. Section B / optional questions have been removed by NTA from 2025 onwards. There is no choice.
  3. Each correct answer carries +4 marks. Each wrong answer carries −1 mark. Unanswered questions carry 0 marks.
  4. Total duration: 3 hours (180 minutes) — updated from the older 3h 20min format.
  5. Use of calculator, log tables, or any electronic device is NOT permitted.
  6. This is a pen-paper OMR-based offline exam. Mark answers carefully — there is no option to change once marked.
  7. Assume standard values: g = 10 m/s², c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C, k = 9 × 10⁹ N·m²/C², R = 8.314 J/K·mol unless stated otherwise.
  8. This paper is calibrated to the difficulty of NEET 2024-25 and follows the official NMC rationalised NCERT syllabus. Every question maps to a syllabus chapter.

PHYSICS

Physics (Q1 to Q45)

All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q1

An electric dipole of moment 6 × 10⁻³⁰ C·m is placed in a uniform electric field of 4 × 10⁵ N/C. The maximum torque experienced by the dipole is:

(a) 1.2 × 10⁻²⁴ N·m
(b) 2.4 × 10⁻²⁴ N·m
(c) 3.6 × 10⁻²⁴ N·m
(d) 6.0 × 10⁻²⁴ N·m

Q2

Three capacitors of 2 μF, 3 μF and 6 μF are connected in series across a 30 V battery. The charge on the 3 μF capacitor is:

(a) 10 μC
(b) 20 μC
(c) 30 μC
(d) 60 μC

Q3

A spherical conductor of radius R carries a charge Q. The electric field at a distance R/2 from its centre is:

(a) kQ/R²
(b) 2kQ/R²
(c) kQ/(R/2)²
(d) Zero

Q4

A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has capacitance C. When a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K and thickness equal to half the plate separation is inserted, the new capacitance becomes:

(a) KC/(K+1)
(b) 2KC/(K+1)
(c) C(K+1)/2K
(d) KC/2

Q5

In a Wheatstone bridge the resistances are P=10 Ω, Q=15 Ω, R=20 Ω. For balance the value of S is:

(a) 20 Ω
(b) 25 Ω
(c) 30 Ω
(d) 40 Ω

Q6

A cell of EMF 2 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected to an external resistor R. The maximum power transferred to R is:

(a) 1 W
(b) 2 W
(c) 4 W
(d) 8 W

Q7

The drift velocity of free electrons in a copper wire of cross-sectional area 1 × 10⁻⁶ m² carrying a current of 1.6 A is (n = 10²⁹ m⁻³):

(a) 10⁻⁴ m/s
(b) 10⁻⁵ m/s
(c) 10⁻³ m/s
(d) 10⁻² m/s

Q8

Two wires of the same material have lengths in ratio 1:2 and radii in ratio 2:1. The ratio of their resistances is:

(a) 1:8
(b) 8:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 2:1

Q9

A circular coil of radius 0.1 m carries a current of 5 A. The magnitude of magnetic field at its centre is:

(a) π × 10⁻⁵ T
(b) π × 10⁻⁴ T
(c) 2π × 10⁻⁵ T
(d) 2π × 10⁻⁴ T

Q10

A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is bent in the shape of a semicircle. Its new magnetic moment is:

(a) M
(b) M/π
(c) 2M/π
(d) M/2

Q11

A step-down transformer has 2000 turns in the primary and 100 turns in the secondary. If the primary current is 0.5 A, the secondary current (assuming 100% efficiency) is:

(a) 2.5 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 20 A

Q12

A series LCR circuit has L = 100 mH, C = 100 μF and R = 12 Ω. The resonant angular frequency is:

(a) 10 rad/s
(b) 100 rad/s
(c) 316 rad/s
(d) 1000 rad/s

Q13

An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image distance is:

(a) −6 cm
(b) −15 cm
(c) −30 cm
(d) +30 cm

Q14

Two thin lenses of focal lengths +20 cm and −10 cm are placed in contact. The power of the combination is:

(a) −10 D
(b) −5 D
(c) +5 D
(d) +10 D

Q15

In Young’s double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the fringe width on a screen 1 m away is 0.6 mm. The slit separation is:

(a) 0.1 mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 0.5 mm
(d) 2 mm

Q16

The Brewster angle for a transparent medium of refractive index √3 is:

(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 75°

Q17

The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through 150 V is approximately:

(a) 1 Å
(b) 10 Å
(c) 100 Å
(d) 0.1 Å

Q18

In a photoelectric experiment, the stopping potential for light of wavelength 400 nm is 0.6 V. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV·nm):

(a) 1.5 eV
(b) 2.5 eV
(c) 3.0 eV
(d) 2.0 eV

Q19

The ratio of the radii of orbits of an electron in the n = 3 and n = 1 states of a hydrogen atom is:

(a) 3 : 1
(b) 6 : 1
(c) 9 : 1
(d) 27 : 1

Q20

²³⁸U emits an α-particle followed by two β⁻-particles. The atomic number of the resulting nucleus is:

(a) 90
(b) 91
(c) 92
(d) 93

Q21

The half-life of a radioactive sample is 20 minutes. After 1 hour, the fraction of nuclei left undecayed is:

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/16

Q22

A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough horizontal surface (μ = 0.4). The minimum horizontal force to set it in motion is:

(a) 4 N
(b) 8 N
(c) 12 N
(d) 20 N

Q23

In an Atwood machine with masses 5 kg and 3 kg connected over a frictionless pulley, the acceleration of the system is (g = 10 m/s²):

(a) 1.25 m/s²
(b) 2.5 m/s²
(c) 5 m/s²
(d) 10 m/s²

Q24

A force F = (3î + 4ĵ) N acts on a body and displaces it by s = (2î + 3ĵ) m. Work done is:

(a) 6 J
(b) 12 J
(c) 18 J
(d) 24 J

Q25

A pump lifts 2000 kg of water per minute from a well 10 m deep. The power of the pump (g = 10 m/s²) is:

(a) 1.67 kW
(b) 3.33 kW
(c) 16.7 kW
(d) 33.3 kW

Q26

A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides elastically and head-on with another stationary body of mass 2m. The velocity of the first body after collision is:

(a) v/3 (forward)
(b) v/3 (backward)
(c) 2v/3 (forward)
(d) Zero

Q27

The moment of inertia of a uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to its length is:

(a) ML²/12
(b) ML²/6
(c) ML²/3
(d) ML²/2

Q28

A solid sphere rolls without slipping. The fraction of its total kinetic energy that is rotational is:

(a) 2/7
(b) 2/5
(c) 5/7
(d) 3/7

Q29

In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:

(a) Internal energy increases
(b) Internal energy decreases
(c) Internal energy remains constant
(d) Heat absorbed equals zero

Q30

The ratio of specific heats γ = Cp/Cv for a diatomic ideal gas is:

(a) 5/3
(b) 7/5
(c) 4/3
(d) 9/7

Q31

At constant temperature, if the pressure of an ideal gas is doubled, the mean free path of its molecules will:

(a) Become half
(b) Become double
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Become four times

Q32

A spring-mass system has time period T. If the mass is doubled and the spring constant is halved, the new time period is:

(a) T
(b) √2 T
(c) 2T
(d) T/2

Q33

Two sound waves of frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz superpose. The beat frequency is:

(a) 2 Hz
(b) 4 Hz
(c) 6 Hz
(d) 8 Hz

Q34

The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is f. If its length is reduced to one-third while keeping tension constant, the new fundamental frequency is:

(a) f/3
(b) f/√3
(c) √3 f
(d) 3f

Q35

A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is stretched by force F producing extension Δl. Young’s modulus is:

(a) FΔl/AL
(b) FA/LΔl
(c) FL/AΔl
(d) ALΔl/F

Q36

Water rises to height 10 cm in a capillary tube. If the tube is replaced by another of half the radius, water will rise to:

(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 40 cm

Q37

A Zener diode is used as a:

(a) Rectifier
(b) Voltage amplifier
(c) Voltage regulator
(d) Switch only

Q38

In a p-n junction diode, the depletion region contains:

(a) Free electrons only
(b) Free holes only
(c) Immobile ionised donor and acceptor atoms
(d) Both free electrons and free holes

Q39

The escape velocity from the surface of the Earth is 11.2 km/s. From a planet of half the mass and half the radius of the Earth, escape velocity is:

(a) 5.6 km/s
(b) 11.2 km/s
(c) 22.4 km/s
(d) 2.8 km/s

Q40

A satellite revolves around the Earth in a circular orbit of radius r. Its orbital velocity is proportional to:

(a) r
(b) √r
(c) 1/r
(d) 1/√r

Q41

A projectile is fired with speed 20 m/s at 60° to the horizontal. Maximum height attained (g = 10 m/s²):

(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m

Q42

A car moving at 20 m/s decelerates uniformly at 4 m/s². The distance covered before coming to rest is:

(a) 25 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 75 m
(d) 100 m

Q43

Microwaves are commonly used in:

(a) Radar communication
(b) Crystallography
(c) Medical imaging (X-rays)
(d) Sterilisation by UV

Q44

The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is:

(a) [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
(b) [MLT⁻¹]
(c) [ML⁻²T⁻¹]
(d) [ML⁻¹T⁻²]

Q45

In a Vernier callipers, 10 vernier scale divisions coincide with 9 main scale divisions. If 1 MSD = 1 mm, the least count is:

(a) 0.01 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 1 mm

CHEMISTRY

Chemistry (Q46 to Q90)

All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q46

The number of moles of CO₂ liberated when 50 g of CaCO₃ is heated completely is (atomic masses: Ca=40, C=12, O=16):

(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 2.0

Q47

The number of significant figures in 0.00408 is:

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Q48

The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by:

(a) 2n²
(b) 4l + 2
(c) 2(2l + 1)
(d) Both b and c

Q49

For the Balmer series of hydrogen, the longest wavelength corresponds to the transition:

(a) n=3 → n=2
(b) n=4 → n=2
(c) n=∞ → n=2
(d) n=2 → n=1

Q50

The shape of XeF₄ molecule according to VSEPR theory is:

(a) Tetrahedral
(b) Square planar
(c) See-saw
(d) Trigonal bipyramidal

Q51

Which of the following has the highest bond order?

(a) O₂
(b) O₂⁺
(c) O₂⁻
(d) O₂²⁻

Q52

The number of pi (π) bonds in benzene (C₆H₆) is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6

Q53

Hybridisation of central atom in IF₇ is:

(a) sp³d
(b) sp³d²
(c) sp³d³
(d) sp²d⁴

Q54

For a spontaneous process at constant T and P:

(a) ΔG > 0
(b) ΔG = 0
(c) ΔG < 0
(d) ΔS_universe < 0

Q55

The work done by 2 moles of an ideal gas during reversible isothermal expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K is (R = 8.314 J/K·mol, ln 10 = 2.303):

(a) 5746 J
(b) 11491 J
(c) 2873 J
(d) 8612 J

Q56

Henry’s law constant for a gas in water is 1.0 × 10⁵ atm. The mole fraction of the gas in water at 1 atm is:

(a) 10⁻⁵
(b) 10⁻⁴
(c) 10⁻³
(d) 10⁻²

Q57

A 5% (w/V) solution of glucose (M = 180) in water has molarity:

(a) 0.14 M
(b) 0.28 M
(c) 0.56 M
(d) 1.00 M

Q58

For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), the relationship between Kp and Kc is:

(a) Kp = Kc
(b) Kp = Kc(RT)
(c) Kp = Kc(RT)⁻¹
(d) Kp = Kc(RT)⁻²

Q59

The pH of 0.001 M HCl solution is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 11

Q60

The oxidation state of chromium in K₂Cr₂O₇ is:

(a) +2
(b) +3
(c) +6
(d) +7

Q61

How much charge in coulombs is required to deposit 9 g of aluminium (atomic mass 27) from molten Al₂O₃?

(a) 32175 C
(b) 48262 C
(c) 96485 C
(d) 289455 C

Q62

For the cell Zn|Zn²⁺(1M)||Cu²⁺(1M)|Cu, E°_cell is 1.10 V. The cell is:

(a) Spontaneous, ΔG° < 0
(b) Non-spontaneous, ΔG° > 0
(c) At equilibrium, ΔG° = 0
(d) Neither — depends on temperature

Q63

For a first-order reaction, the half-life:

(a) Depends on initial concentration
(b) Is independent of initial concentration
(c) Increases with initial concentration
(d) Decreases with initial concentration

Q64

The rate constant of a reaction doubles when temperature is increased from 300 K to 310 K. The activation energy is approximately (R = 8.314 J/K·mol):

(a) 26.6 kJ/mol
(b) 53.6 kJ/mol
(c) 13.3 kJ/mol
(d) 100 kJ/mol

Q65

Among the following, the element with the largest atomic radius is:

(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Mg
(d) Al

Q66

Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?

(a) CO₂
(b) MgO
(c) Al₂O₃
(d) P₄O₁₀

Q67

The most acidic among hydrogen halides is:

(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI

Q68

Inert pair effect is most pronounced in:

(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Tin
(d) Lead

Q69

The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for:

(a) Similarity in size of Zr and Hf
(b) Coloured ions of lanthanoids
(c) Magnetic property of actinoids
(d) Variable oxidation states of actinoids

Q70

KMnO₄ in acidic medium is reduced to:

(a) MnO₂
(b) Mn²⁺
(c) MnO₄²⁻
(d) Mn₂O₃

Q71

The number of unpaired electrons in [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is:

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q72

The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ is:

(a) Pentaamminechloridocobalt(II) chloride
(b) Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
(c) Pentaammine cobalt(III) trichloride
(d) Chloropentaamminecobalt(II) dichloride

Q73

Which of the following complexes shows optical isomerism?

(a) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(b) [Co(en)₃]³⁺
(c) [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺
(d) [Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]

Q74

In [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻, the hybridisation of Ni and geometry are:

(a) sp³, tetrahedral
(b) dsp², square planar
(c) sp³d, trigonal bipyramidal
(d) d²sp³, octahedral

Q75

According to crystal field theory, an octahedral complex has Δ₀ such that the d-orbitals split into:

(a) Two t₂g (lower) and three eg (upper)
(b) Three t₂g (lower) and two eg (upper)
(c) Three eg (lower) and two t₂g (upper)
(d) Equal energy

Q76

The order of SN1 reactivity for the following halides is: (1) (CH₃)₃C-Br, (2) (CH₃)₂CH-Br, (3) CH₃CH₂-Br, (4) CH₃-Br:

(a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(b) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(c) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
(d) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

Q77

Reaction of chlorobenzene with NaOH at 623 K and 300 atm gives:

(a) Benzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Sodium benzoate
(d) Toluene

Q78

Markovnikov’s addition of HBr to propene gives:

(a) 1-Bromopropane
(b) 2-Bromopropane
(c) 1,2-Dibromopropane
(d) Propan-2-ol

Q79

The compound that gives a yellow precipitate with NaOI (iodoform test) is:

(a) Methanol
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Diethyl ether

Q80

Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

(a) CH₃⁺
(b) CH₃CH₂⁺
(c) (CH₃)₂CH⁺
(d) (CH₃)₃C⁺

Q81

Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because:

(a) Phenoxide ion is destabilised by resonance
(b) Phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance with the ring
(c) Phenol has stronger O–H bond
(d) Ethanol forms hydrogen bonds easily

Q82

Lucas reagent (anhydrous ZnCl₂ + conc. HCl) distinguishes:

(a) 1°, 2°, 3° amines
(b) 1°, 2°, 3° alcohols
(c) Aldehydes from ketones
(d) Acids from esters

Q83

Tollens’ reagent oxidises:

(a) Both aldehydes and ketones
(b) Only aldehydes
(c) Only ketones
(d) Neither

Q84

The product of aldol condensation of two molecules of acetaldehyde is:

(a) 3-hydroxybutanal
(b) 2-hydroxybutanal
(c) Butan-2-one
(d) But-2-enal (after dehydration)

Q85

Benzaldehyde does NOT undergo:

(a) Cannizzaro reaction
(b) Aldol condensation
(c) Tollens’ test
(d) Schiff’s test

Q86

The order of basic strength of amines in aqueous solution is:

(a) NH₃ > 1° > 2° > 3°
(b) 3° > 2° > 1° > NH₃
(c) 2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃
(d) Methylamine > NH₃ but order reverses for higher amines

Q87

Aniline does not undergo Friedel–Crafts reaction because:

(a) Aniline is not aromatic
(b) Lone pair on N is unavailable
(c) Anhydrous AlCl₃ (Lewis acid) reacts with the basic NH₂ group
(d) Aniline is too volatile

Q88

The glycosidic bond in maltose is between:

(a) α-1,4 of two glucose units
(b) β-1,4 of glucose and fructose
(c) α-1,2 of glucose and fructose
(d) β-1,4 of two glucose units

Q89

The secondary structure of proteins is stabilised mainly by:

(a) Disulphide bridges
(b) Hydrogen bonds between C=O and N–H
(c) Ionic interactions
(d) Hydrophobic interactions

Q90

Vitamin which is fat-soluble and important for blood clotting is:

(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K

BOTANY

Botany (Q91 to Q135)

All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q91

Mannitol is the reserve food material in:

(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae
(d) Cyanobacteria

Q92

Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom because:

(a) They live partly in water and partly on land
(b) They require water for fertilisation
(c) They have stomata
(d) They are dioecious

Q93

Which of the following is NOT a feature of fungi?

(a) Cell wall of chitin
(b) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(c) Reserve food as starch
(d) Hyphae form mycelium

Q94

Bacterial cell wall is made of:

(a) Cellulose
(b) Chitin
(c) Peptidoglycan
(d) Lignin

Q95

Bulliform cells are present in:

(a) Lower epidermis of dicot leaves
(b) Upper epidermis of monocot leaves
(c) Roots of grasses
(d) Stems of dicots

Q96

Which of the following is an example of an underground modified stem?

(a) Carrot
(b) Sweet potato
(c) Potato
(d) Radish

Q97

In aestivation, the petals of a flower in which one petal is innermost and other overlaps it is called:

(a) Valvate
(b) Twisted
(c) Imbricate
(d) Vexillary

Q98

The cambium responsible for secondary growth in dicot stems is:

(a) Vascular cambium
(b) Cork cambium
(c) Both vascular and cork cambium
(d) Procambium only

Q99

The number of chromatids in a chromosome at metaphase of mitosis is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q100

The fluid-mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by:

(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Singer and Nicolson
(c) Schwann and Schleiden
(d) Watson and Crick

Q101

Crossing over occurs during:

(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diakinesis

Q102

Mitochondria are absent in:

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Yeast
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae

Q103

Polytene chromosomes are characteristically found in:

(a) Salivary gland of Drosophila
(b) Liver of mammals
(c) Pollen mother cells
(d) Root tip of onion

Q104

In C3 plants, the first stable product of CO₂ fixation is:

(a) Oxaloacetic acid
(b) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
(c) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate

Q105

As per NCERT, the net ATP yield from complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule in eukaryotes is:

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 36 to 38

Q106

The site of light reaction of photosynthesis is:

(a) Stroma of chloroplast
(b) Thylakoid membrane
(c) Outer chloroplast membrane
(d) Cytoplasm

Q107

Photorespiration is associated with:

(a) C3 plants only
(b) C4 plants only
(c) Both C3 and C4
(d) CAM plants only

Q108

Ethylene is involved in:

(a) Stem elongation
(b) Apical dominance
(c) Fruit ripening
(d) Stomatal closure

Q109

Stomatal closure is regulated by:

(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

Q110

In glycolysis, the net gain of ATP per glucose molecule is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

Q111

In angiosperms, the embryo sac is:

(a) 7-celled, 8-nucleate
(b) 8-celled, 8-nucleate
(c) 7-celled, 7-nucleate
(d) 6-celled, 8-nucleate

Q112

Double fertilisation in angiosperms results in formation of:

(a) Embryo only
(b) Endosperm only
(c) Embryo and endosperm
(d) Two embryos

Q113

Pollination by water (hydrophily) occurs in:

(a) Vallisneria
(b) Hibiscus
(c) Mango
(d) Wheat

Q114

In the embryo sac, the haploid (n) cells are:

(a) Synergids only
(b) Egg cell only
(c) Synergids, egg cell, antipodals
(d) Polar nuclei

Q115

Apomixis refers to:

(a) Sexual seed production
(b) Asexual production of seeds without fertilisation
(c) Production of pollen
(d) Self-pollination

Q116

Test cross involves crossing the F1 hybrid with:

(a) Dominant homozygous parent
(b) Recessive homozygous parent
(c) Heterozygous parent
(d) Itself

Q117

In a dihybrid cross between RrYy × RrYy, the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation is:

(a) 3:1
(b) 9:3:3:1
(c) 1:1:1:1
(d) 9:7

Q118

DNA replication is:

(a) Conservative
(b) Semi-conservative
(c) Dispersive
(d) Random

Q119

Translation involves the synthesis of:

(a) DNA from RNA
(b) RNA from DNA
(c) Protein from mRNA
(d) DNA from protein

Q120

In the lac operon model of Jacob and Monod, the molecule that acts as an inducer (per NCERT) is:

(a) Lactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Galactose
(d) cAMP

Q121

The number of nitrogenous bases in one turn of B-DNA is approximately:

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 100

Q122

Hardy–Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies remain constant when:

(a) Mutation occurs
(b) Migration occurs
(c) No selection, mutation, migration, drift, and random mating
(d) Genetic drift occurs

Q123

Methanogens belong to:

(a) Eubacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Cyanobacteria

Q124

The fungus used for the commercial production of citric acid is:

(a) Penicillium notatum
(b) Aspergillus niger
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Trichoderma polysporum

Q125

Restriction endonuclease EcoRI cuts DNA at the sequence:

(a) GAATTC
(b) GGATCC
(c) AAGCTT
(d) CTGCAG

Q126

In recombinant DNA technology, the vector pBR322 has antibiotic resistance genes for:

(a) Ampicillin and tetracycline
(b) Penicillin and streptomycin
(c) Kanamycin and chloramphenicol
(d) Gentamycin only

Q127

Bt cotton produces an insecticidal protein from the gene of:

(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Pseudomonas fluorescens
(d) Escherichia coli

Q128

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) requires:

(a) DNA ligase
(b) Taq DNA polymerase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) Reverse transcriptase

Q129

The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is:

(a) Always upright
(b) Always inverted
(c) May be upright or inverted
(d) Sometimes spindle-shaped

Q130

Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation incorporates:

(a) Unlimited resources
(b) Carrying capacity (K)
(c) Constant birth rate
(d) No deaths

Q131

Mycorrhiza is an example of:

(a) Parasitism
(b) Predation
(c) Mutualism
(d) Commensalism

Q132

Decomposers in an ecosystem are mainly:

(a) Bacteria and fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Insects

Q133

In an ecological pyramid of numbers, which level usually has the maximum number?

(a) Producers (in grassland)
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers

Q134

In a polysaccharide, the monomers are joined by:

(a) Peptide bonds
(b) Phosphodiester bonds
(c) Glycosidic bonds
(d) Hydrogen bonds

Q135

During the Calvin cycle, for the synthesis of one glucose molecule, the number of ATP and NADPH molecules consumed are:

(a) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH
(b) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(c) 6 ATP and 12 NADPH
(d) 18 ATP and 18 NADPH

ZOOLOGY

Zoology (Q136 to Q180)

All 45 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q136

Notochord is present in:

(a) All animals
(b) All chordates at some stage of life
(c) Only adult vertebrates
(d) Only invertebrates

Q137

Which of the following animals shows radial symmetry?

(a) Earthworm
(b) Hydra
(c) Cockroach
(d) Frog

Q138

Open circulatory system is found in:

(a) Earthworm
(b) Frog
(c) Cockroach
(d) Human

Q139

Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana belong to phylum:

(a) Cnidaria
(b) Ctenophora
(c) Porifera
(d) Platyhelminthes

Q140

Number of segments in earthworm (Pheretima) body is approximately:

(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 100–120
(d) 200

Q141

Malpighian tubules in cockroach are concerned with:

(a) Digestion
(b) Excretion
(c) Respiration
(d) Circulation

Q142

Hepatic caeca in cockroach are present at the junction of:

(a) Crop and gizzard
(b) Gizzard and midgut
(c) Midgut and hindgut
(d) Mouth and pharynx

Q143

The enzyme that converts maltose to glucose in the small intestine is:

(a) Amylase
(b) Maltase
(c) Lactase
(d) Sucrase

Q144

Gastric juice contains:

(a) Pepsin, HCl, mucus
(b) Trypsin, HCl, bile
(c) Pepsin, bile salts
(d) Lipase only

Q145

The tidal volume of an average adult human is:

(a) 500 mL
(b) 1500 mL
(c) 3000 mL
(d) 4500 mL

Q146

Most CO₂ is transported in blood as:

(a) Dissolved in plasma
(b) Bicarbonate ions in plasma
(c) Bound to haemoglobin
(d) Carbonic acid

Q147

In the human ECG, the P-wave represents:

(a) Ventricular depolarisation
(b) Ventricular repolarisation
(c) Atrial depolarisation
(d) Atrial repolarisation

Q148

Pacemaker of the human heart is:

(a) AV node
(b) SA node
(c) Bundle of His
(d) Purkinje fibres

Q149

The functional unit of human kidney is:

(a) Glomerulus
(b) Nephron
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Bowman’s capsule

Q150

Loop of Henle is responsible for:

(a) Filtration
(b) Concentration of urine
(c) Glucose reabsorption
(d) Hormone secretion

Q151

The neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction in vertebrates is:

(a) Dopamine
(b) Acetylcholine
(c) GABA
(d) Serotonin

Q152

Cretinism is caused by deficiency of:

(a) Growth hormone in childhood
(b) Thyroxine in childhood
(c) Insulin
(d) Cortisol

Q153

Insulin is secreted by:

(a) α-cells of islets of Langerhans
(b) β-cells of islets of Langerhans
(c) δ-cells
(d) Acinar cells

Q154

Sliding filament theory explains:

(a) Bone formation
(b) Muscle contraction
(c) Joint movement
(d) Cartilage synthesis

Q155

Total number of bones in adult human skeleton is:

(a) 196
(b) 200
(c) 206
(d) 214

Q156

Tetany is caused by:

(a) Excess calcium
(b) Deficiency of calcium ions in body fluids
(c) Excess sodium
(d) Iron deficiency

Q157

Spermatogenesis is initiated due to the influence of:

(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) GnRH
(d) Testosterone alone

Q158

In females, the follicular phase corresponds to the:

(a) Day 1–5 of menstrual cycle
(b) Day 6–14 of menstrual cycle
(c) Day 14–28
(d) Only ovulation day

Q159

Implantation of the embryo in the uterine wall occurs at the stage of:

(a) Morula
(b) Blastocyst
(c) Gastrula
(d) Zygote

Q160

Copper-T is a:

(a) Hormonal contraceptive
(b) Surgical method
(c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
(d) Barrier method

Q161

MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is generally considered safe up to:

(a) First trimester (12 weeks)
(b) Second trimester
(c) Third trimester
(d) Any stage

Q162

Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by mutation in:

(a) Alpha chain of haemoglobin
(b) Beta chain of haemoglobin
(c) Gamma chain
(d) Delta chain

Q163

Klinefelter’s syndrome has karyotype:

(a) 45, X
(b) 47, XXY
(c) 47, XYY
(d) 47, XXX

Q164

In humans, sex of the offspring is determined by:

(a) Mother
(b) Father (sperm carries X or Y)
(c) Both equally
(d) Neither — random

Q165

Colour blindness is:

(a) Y-linked dominant
(b) X-linked recessive
(c) Autosomal dominant
(d) Mitochondrial

Q166

The closest evolutionary relative of modern humans (Homo sapiens) is:

(a) Gorilla
(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Orangutan
(d) Gibbon

Q167

Adaptive radiation is best illustrated by:

(a) Convergent evolution of birds and bats
(b) Darwin’s finches of Galapagos
(c) Industrial melanism
(d) DNA fingerprinting

Q168

The first fossil discovered of human ancestors with bipedal locomotion was:

(a) Homo erectus
(b) Australopithecus
(c) Neanderthal
(d) Homo habilis

Q169

Widal test is used to diagnose:

(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Pneumonia

Q170

AIDS virus contains:

(a) Single-stranded DNA
(b) Double-stranded DNA
(c) Single-stranded RNA
(d) Double-stranded RNA

Q171

The vector of malaria is:

(a) Female Aedes mosquito
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito
(c) Male Anopheles mosquito
(d) Tsetse fly

Q172

Filariasis is caused by:

(a) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Trypanosoma
(d) Leishmania

Q173

Golden rice is genetically engineered to produce:

(a) Vitamin A (β-carotene)
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Iron
(d) Vitamin D

Q174

Insulin produced by recombinant DNA technology in E. coli is called:

(a) Glargine
(b) Humulin
(c) Aspart
(d) Detemir

Q175

Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis is:

(a) Toxic to bacteria
(b) Toxic to insect larvae after activation in alkaline gut
(c) Active in inactive form
(d) Toxic to humans

Q176

Population density that is constant over time despite births and deaths is referred to as:

(a) Carrying capacity
(b) Zero population growth
(c) Logistic growth
(d) Exponential growth

Q177

Synapsis (pairing of homologous chromosomes) occurs during:

(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene

Q178

Number of chromosomes in human gametes is:

(a) 23
(b) 46
(c) 44
(d) 69

Q179

Crossing-over leads to:

(a) Linkage of genes
(b) Genetic recombination
(c) Reduction of chromosome number
(d) Non-disjunction

Q180

In a reflex arc, the correct sequence of components is:

(a) Receptor → motor neuron → spinal cord → effector
(b) Receptor → afferent neuron → spinal cord → efferent neuron → effector
(c) Stimulus → effector → spinal cord → receptor
(d) Receptor → spinal cord → afferent → effector

PHYSICS — Answer Key (Q1–Q45)

Q1. (b) τ_max = pE sin90° = 6×10⁻³⁰ × 4×10⁵ = 2.4 × 10⁻²⁴ N·m.
Q2. (c) 1/C_eq = 1/2+1/3+1/6 = 1, C_eq = 1 μF. Q = C_eq·V = 1×30 = 30 μC. Same charge on each in series.
Q3. (d) Inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium the electric field is zero. R/2 lies inside the spherical conductor (charge resides on the surface).
Q4. (b) With slab of thickness d/2 and air d/2: C’ = ε₀A / [(d/2) + (d/2K)] = 2Kε₀A / [d(K+1)] = 2KC/(K+1).
Q5. (c) Balance condition P/Q = R/S ⇒ 10/15 = 20/S ⇒ S = 30 Ω.
Q6. (b) Maximum power transfer when R = r = 0.5 Ω. P_max = E²/4r = 4/(4×0.5) = 2 W.
Q7. (a) v_d = I/(n·A·e) = 1.6/(10²⁹ × 10⁻⁶ × 1.6×10⁻¹⁹) = 1.6/(1.6×10⁴) = 10⁻⁴ m/s.
Q8. (a) R = ρL/A = ρL/(πr²). R₁/R₂ = (L₁/L₂)·(r₂/r₁)² = (1/2)·(1/2)² = 1/8.
Q9. (a) B = μ₀I/(2R) = (4π × 10⁻⁷ × 5)/(2 × 0.1) = (4π × 10⁻⁷ × 5)/0.2 = 100π × 10⁻⁷ = π × 10⁻⁵ T.
Q10. (c) Original length L = πr (semicircle perimeter). Magnetic moment M = m·L. Bending into semicircle, new effective length = diameter = 2r. New moment M’ = m·(2r) = m·L·(2/π) = 2M/π.
Q11. (c) For ideal transformer V_s I_s = V_p I_p ⇒ N_s I_s = N_p I_p (since V ∝ N for same flux). I_s = (N_p/N_s)·I_p = (2000/100)·0.5 = 10 A.
Q12. (c) ω₀ = 1/√(LC) = 1/√(0.1 × 10⁻⁴) = 1/√(10⁻⁵) = 10^2.5 ≈ 316 rad/s.
Q13. (c) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f. u = −15, f = −10. 1/v = −1/10 + 1/15 = −1/30. v = −30 cm (real image, 30 cm in front).
Q14. (b) P = P₁ + P₂ = (1/0.20) + (1/−0.10) = 5 − 10 = −5 D.
Q15. (b) β = λD/d ⇒ d = λD/β = (600×10⁻⁹ × 1) / (0.6×10⁻³) = 10⁻³ m = 1 mm.
Q16. (c) tan i_B = μ ⇒ tan i_B = √3 ⇒ i_B = 60°.
Q17. (a) λ = 12.27/√V Å = 12.27/√150 ≈ 12.27/12.25 ≈ 1.0 Å.
Q18. (b) E_photon = 1240/400 = 3.1 eV. φ = E − eV_s = 3.1 − 0.6 = 2.5 eV.
Q19. (c) r_n ∝ n². r₃/r₁ = 9/1 = 9 : 1.
Q20. (c) α: Z drops by 2 (92→90); two β⁻: Z increases by 2 (90→92). Final Z = 92.
Q21. (c) 60 min = 3 half-lives. Remaining = (1/2)³ = 1/8.
Q22. (b) F = μ_s·mg = 0.4 × 2 × 10 = 8 N.
Q23. (b) a = (m₁−m₂)g/(m₁+m₂) = 2×10/8 = 2.5 m/s².
Q24. (c) W = F·s = 3×2 + 4×3 = 6 + 12 = 18 J.
Q25. (b) Work per second = mgh/t = 2000×10×10/60 = 200000/60 ≈ 3333 W ≈ 3.33 kW.
Q26. (b) v₁’ = (m−2m)v/(m+2m) = −v/3. Negative sign means it moves backward.
Q27. (a) I = ML²/12 (standard result for thin rod about centre, perpendicular).
Q28. (a) For solid sphere, KE_rot/KE_total = (½ × 2/5 mr²ω²)/(½mv² + ½ × 2/5 mr²ω²) with v = rω. = (1/5)/(1/2 + 1/5) = (1/5)/(7/10) = 2/7.
Q29. (c) Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature. In isothermal process, T = constant ⇒ ΔU = 0.
Q30. (b) For diatomic gas (rigid): Cv = 5R/2, Cp = 7R/2. γ = 7/5 = 1.4.
Q31. (a) λ = kT/(√2 πd²P). At constant T, λ ∝ 1/P. Doubling P halves λ.
Q32. (c) T = 2π√(m/k). T’ = 2π√(2m/(k/2)) = 2π√(4m/k) = 2T.
Q33. (b) Beat frequency = |f₁ − f₂| = 4 Hz.
Q34. (d) f = (1/2L)√(T/μ). f ∝ 1/L. New f = 3f.
Q35. (c) Y = stress/strain = (F/A)/(Δl/L) = FL/(AΔl).
Q36. (c) h = 2T cosθ/(rρg). h ∝ 1/r. Halving r doubles h ⇒ 20 cm.
Q37. (c) Zener diode operates in reverse breakdown region with constant voltage — used as voltage regulator.
Q38. (c) The depletion region is depleted of mobile charge carriers; only immobile donor (positive) and acceptor (negative) ions remain.
Q39. (b) v_e = √(2GM/R). v_e’ = √(2G·(M/2)/(R/2)) = √(2GM/R) = v_e = 11.2 km/s.
Q40. (d) v_o = √(GM/r) ∝ 1/√r.
Q41. (c) H = u²sin²θ/(2g) = 400 × (√3/2)²/20 = 400 × 0.75/20 = 15 m.
Q42. (b) v² = u² − 2as ⇒ 0 = 400 − 8s ⇒ s = 50 m.
Q43. (a) Microwaves are used in RADAR systems and microwave ovens because their wavelengths can be reflected by aircraft-sized objects.
Q44. (a) η has SI unit Pa·s = N·s/m² = kg/(m·s) ⇒ [ML⁻¹T⁻¹].
Q45. (c) LC = 1 MSD − 1 VSD = 1 − 9/10 = 0.1 mm.

CHEMISTRY — Answer Key (Q46–Q90)

Q46. (b) Molar mass CaCO₃ = 100 g/mol. Moles = 50/100 = 0.5. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ (1:1). Moles CO₂ = 0.5.
Q47. (a) Leading zeros are not significant. The significant digits are 4, 0, 8 ⇒ 3 sig figs.
Q48. (d) Each orbital holds 2 electrons; subshell of azimuthal l has (2l+1) orbitals ⇒ 2(2l+1) = 4l+2 electrons.
Q49. (a) Smallest energy gap in Balmer series (n=3→2, Hα) gives the longest wavelength (≈656 nm).
Q50. (b) Xe has 8 valence e⁻; 4 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs ⇒ sp³d² hybridisation. Lone pairs occupy axial-equivalent positions ⇒ square planar geometry.
Q51. (b) BO: O₂ = 2, O₂⁺ = 2.5 (one less antibonding e⁻), O₂⁻ = 1.5, O₂²⁻ = 1. O₂⁺ has highest BO.
Q52. (c) Benzene has 3 alternating C=C double bonds; the σ-framework + 3 π-bonds (delocalised).
Q53. (c) 7 bond pairs around I require sp³d³ hybridisation (pentagonal bipyramidal).
Q54. (c) ΔG = ΔH − TΔS. Spontaneous ⇒ ΔG < 0 (and ΔS_universe > 0).
Q55. (b) w = nRT ln(V₂/V₁) = 2 × 8.314 × 300 × 2.303 ≈ 11491 J.
Q56. (a) p = K_H · x ⇒ x = p/K_H = 1/10⁵ = 10⁻⁵.
Q57. (b) 5 g per 100 mL = 50 g/L. Molarity = 50/180 ≈ 0.278 M ≈ 0.28 M.
Q58. (d) Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn. Δn = 2 − (1+3) = −2 ⇒ Kp = Kc(RT)⁻².
Q59. (c) HCl is a strong acid: [H⁺] = 0.001 M = 10⁻³. pH = 3.
Q60. (c) 2(+1) + 2x + 7(−2) = 0 ⇒ 2x = 12 ⇒ x = +6.
Q61. (c) Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al. Equivalent mass = 27/3 = 9. Q = nF = 1 × 96485 = 96485 C.
Q62. (a) Positive E° ⇒ ΔG° = −nFE° < 0 ⇒ spontaneous.
Q63. (b) For first order, t₁/₂ = 0.693/k — independent of initial concentration.
Q64. (b) ln(k₂/k₁) = (E_a/R)(1/T₁ − 1/T₂). ln 2 = 0.693 = E_a/8.314 × (10/93000) ⇒ E_a ≈ 53.6 kJ/mol.
Q65. (b) Atomic radius increases down a group; K (period 4) is below Na (period 3). K has the largest radius.
Q66. (c) Al₂O₃ reacts with both acids and bases ⇒ amphoteric.
Q67. (d) Acidic strength of HX increases down the group due to weakening H–X bond. HI is the strongest acid.
Q68. (d) Inert pair effect (reluctance of ns² electrons to participate in bonding) is most pronounced in heaviest member — Pb.
Q69. (a) Cumulative contraction across 4f-series leads to nearly identical atomic radii of Zr (4d) and Hf (5d) ⇒ similar chemistry.
Q70. (b) In acidic medium: MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O.
Q71. (d) Fe³⁺: 3d⁵. H₂O is weak field ⇒ high spin ⇒ 5 unpaired e⁻.
Q72. (b) Charge balance: 5(NH₃) neutral + Cl⁻ + 2Cl⁻ outside ⇒ Co = +3. Anionic ligand chlorido cited before neutral ammine alphabetically; Co(III).
Q73. (b) [Co(en)₃]³⁺ is a tris-chelate complex without a plane of symmetry ⇒ d and l forms exist (optical isomerism).
Q74. (b) Ni²⁺ d⁸; CN⁻ strong field pairs the d-electrons; dsp² hybridisation ⇒ square planar; diamagnetic.
Q75. (b) In octahedral field: lower t₂g (dxy, dyz, dxz; 3 orbitals) and upper eg (dx²−y², dz²; 2 orbitals).
Q76. (a) SN1 rate ∝ stability of carbocation: tertiary > secondary > primary > methyl ⇒ 1 > 2 > 3 > 4.
Q77. (b) Dow process: PhCl + NaOH (623 K, 300 atm) → PhONa → PhOH (after acidification).
Q78. (b) H adds to the C with more H; Br to the C with fewer H ⇒ 2-bromopropane (CH₃CHBrCH₃).
Q79. (b) Iodoform test is positive for compounds with CH₃CO– or CH₃CH(OH)– group. Acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO) qualifies.
Q80. (d) Hyperconjugation and inductive effects: tertiary butyl cation is most stable.
Q81. (b) The phenoxide ion is resonance-stabilised by delocalisation of negative charge into the benzene ring.
Q82. (b) Tertiary alcohols turn turbid immediately, secondary in 5 min, primary on heating.
Q83. (b) Tollens’ (ammoniacal AgNO₃) oxidises aldehydes to carboxylates with silver mirror; ketones do not respond.
Q84. (a) Aldol product (before dehydration): CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CHO = 3-hydroxybutanal. On heating it gives but-2-enal.
Q85. (b) Benzaldehyde lacks α-hydrogen ⇒ no aldol reaction. It undergoes Cannizzaro instead.
Q86. (c) In water: 2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃ for methyl-substituted amines (steric and solvation effects compete).
Q87. (c) AlCl₃ coordinates with –NH₂ lone pair forming a salt; the amino group becomes meta-directing and ring deactivated, F-C reaction fails.
Q88. (a) Maltose: 2 α-D-glucose units joined by α-1,4 glycosidic linkage.
Q89. (b) α-helix and β-pleated sheet are held by H-bonds between backbone C=O and N–H groups.
Q90. (d) Vitamin K is essential for synthesis of prothrombin and clotting factors.

BOTANY — Answer Key (Q91–Q135)

Q91. (b) Brown algae (Phaeophyceae) store food as mannitol and laminarin.
Q92. (b) Bryophytes need water for sperm to swim to the archegonium for fertilisation, even though they live on land.
Q93. (c) Fungi store glycogen and oils, NOT starch (which is a plant feature).
Q94. (c) Bacterial cell walls contain peptidoglycan (murein), distinguishing them from eukaryotic walls.
Q95. (b) Bulliform (motor) cells in upper epidermis of grasses cause leaf curling/uncurling to reduce water loss.
Q96. (c) Potato is a stem tuber — modified underground stem with eyes (nodes). The others are root modifications.
Q97. (d) Vexillary (papilionaceous) aestivation: one large posterior petal (standard) overlaps two lateral wings, which overlap two anterior keel petals — typical of pea family.
Q98. (c) Vascular cambium adds secondary xylem/phloem; cork cambium (phellogen) produces cork — both contribute to secondary growth.
Q99. (b) At metaphase, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids attached at the centromere.
Q100. (b) Singer and Nicolson (1972) proposed the fluid-mosaic model.
Q101. (c) Pachytene of meiosis I is the stage of crossing over (chiasmata formation).
Q102. (a) Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes — they lack mitochondria and other membrane-bound organelles.
Q103. (a) Polytene (giant) chromosomes were first described by Balbiani in salivary glands of dipteran flies (e.g., Drosophila).
Q104. (b) Calvin cycle: CO₂ + RuBP → 2 molecules of 3-PGA (3-phosphoglyceric acid).
Q105. (d) Per NCERT Class 11 Ch 14: glycolysis (net 2 ATP) + Krebs cycle (2 ATP) + electron transport system (~32–34 ATP) = approximately 36–38 ATP per glucose.
Q106. (b) Light reactions occur on thylakoid membranes; dark reactions (Calvin cycle) in stroma.
Q107. (a) Photorespiration occurs prominently in C3 plants because RuBisCO acts as oxygenase under high O₂/low CO₂. C4 plants minimise it via CO₂ concentration mechanism.
Q108. (c) Ethylene gas accelerates ripening of fruits (climacteric rise) and senescence.
Q109. (d) ABA (stress hormone) triggers K⁺ efflux from guard cells → stomatal closure during water stress.
Q110. (b) Glycolysis: 4 ATP produced − 2 ATP consumed = net 2 ATP per glucose.
Q111. (a) Mature Polygonum-type embryo sac: 3 antipodals + 1 central cell (with 2 polar nuclei) + 2 synergids + 1 egg = 7 cells, 8 nuclei.
Q112. (c) One sperm fuses with egg → diploid zygote; other sperm fuses with central cell → triploid endosperm.
Q113. (a) Vallisneria shows epihydrophily (pollen carried on water surface).
Q114. (c) All 6 cells (2 synergids + 1 egg + 3 antipodals) are haploid; only the central cell with two polar nuclei is diploid (after fusion forms 2n).
Q115. (b) Apomixis: production of seeds without meiosis or syngamy — clonal seeds.
Q116. (b) Test cross: F1 (suspected genotype) × homozygous recessive — to determine the genotype based on offspring ratio.
Q117. (b) Independent assortment gives the classic 9:3:3:1 dihybrid F2 ratio.
Q118. (b) Meselson–Stahl experiment proved DNA replication is semi-conservative.
Q119. (c) Translation: mRNA codons → amino acid sequence (protein) on ribosomes.
Q120. (a) Per NCERT Class 12: lactose is the substrate for β-galactosidase and it regulates switching on/off of the operon — hence termed the inducer. (Mechanistically, the active form is allolactose, but NEET follows the NCERT statement.)
Q121. (a) B-DNA: 10 base pairs per turn; pitch ~3.4 nm; rise per bp 0.34 nm.
Q122. (c) H-W equilibrium requires absence of selection, mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and presence of random mating.
Q123. (b) Methanogens (e.g., Methanobacterium) are archaebacteria found in marshes, anaerobic sludge, and ruminant guts.
Q124. (b) Aspergillus niger is used industrially for citric acid production.
Q125. (a) EcoRI cuts at G↓AATTC (palindromic), generating 5′ AATT sticky ends.
Q126. (a) pBR322 carries amp^R and tet^R selectable markers.
Q127. (b) The cry genes from Bacillus thuringiensis encode insect-toxic Cry proteins. Bt crops express these against bollworms etc.
Q128. (b) Taq polymerase (heat-stable, from Thermus aquaticus) is used in PCR cycles to synthesise new DNA.
Q129. (a) Energy pyramid is always upright (10% law: only ~10% energy passes to next trophic level).
Q130. (b) Logistic growth: dN/dt = rN(K−N)/K, where K is carrying capacity of the environment.
Q131. (c) Mycorrhiza: fungus + plant root — both benefit (fungus gets carbohydrates, plant gets minerals/water).
Q132. (a) Saprophytic bacteria and fungi decompose dead organic matter → nutrients recycled.
Q133. (a) In grassland, producers (grasses) are most numerous → pyramid is upright. (Inverted in tree-based ecosystems.)
Q134. (c) Monosaccharide units are linked via glycosidic bonds in poly- and oligosaccharides.
Q135. (b) Calvin cycle: per CO₂ fixed → 3 ATP + 2 NADPH. For 6 CO₂ (= 1 glucose): 18 ATP + 12 NADPH.

ZOOLOGY — Answer Key (Q136–Q180)

Q136. (b) Defining feature of phylum Chordata: notochord present at some stage of development.
Q137. (b) Cnidarians (Hydra, jellyfish) show radial symmetry; the others are bilaterally symmetric.
Q138. (c) Arthropods (e.g., cockroach) have open circulation; haemolymph bathes tissues directly.
Q139. (b) Comb jellies (Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana) have ctenes (comb plates) → phylum Ctenophora.
Q140. (c) Pheretima has roughly 100–120 metameric segments (varies).
Q141. (b) Malpighian tubules absorb nitrogenous waste (uric acid) from haemolymph for excretion.
Q142. (b) Six pairs of hepatic caeca arise at the junction of gizzard (proventriculus) and midgut; they secrete digestive juices.
Q143. (b) Maltase (intestinal brush border) hydrolyses maltose → 2 glucose.
Q144. (a) Gastric juice components: HCl, pepsinogen (→ pepsin), mucus, intrinsic factor, gastric lipase.
Q145. (a) TV (volume of air inhaled/exhaled normally per breath) ≈ 500 mL.
Q146. (b) ~70% as HCO₃⁻ in plasma, ~20–25% as carbamino-haemoglobin, ~7% dissolved.
Q147. (c) P-wave: atrial depolarisation. QRS: ventricular depolarisation. T-wave: ventricular repolarisation.
Q148. (b) SA (sinoatrial) node initiates each heartbeat — natural pacemaker (~70–75 bpm).
Q149. (b) Nephron (glomerulus + tubules) is the structural and functional unit of the kidney; ~1 million per kidney.
Q150. (b) Counter-current multiplier in Loop of Henle creates osmotic gradient enabling urine concentration.
Q151. (b) Acetylcholine binds nicotinic ACh receptors on muscle endplate, triggering contraction.
Q152. (b) Hypothyroidism in infancy → cretinism (stunted growth, mental retardation).
Q153. (b) β-cells secrete insulin; α-cells secrete glucagon.
Q154. (b) Huxley’s sliding filament theory: actin filaments slide over myosin during contraction.
Q155. (c) Adult human skeleton has 206 bones (axial + appendicular).
Q156. (b) Hypocalcaemia → rapid spasms in muscle (tetany) due to nerve hyperexcitability.
Q157. (c) GnRH from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary → LH and FSH → spermatogenesis. GnRH initiates the cascade.
Q158. (b) Follicular (proliferative) phase: days 6–14 (after menses, before ovulation), driven by FSH and rising estrogens.
Q159. (b) Blastocyst (with trophoblast and inner cell mass) implants into the endometrium ~6–7 days after fertilisation.
Q160. (c) Copper-T is a Cu-releasing IUD that increases phagocytosis of sperm and impairs fertility.
Q161. (a) MTP is comparatively safe up to first trimester (12 weeks); riskier in second trimester per NCERT.
Q162. (b) Substitution of glutamic acid by valine at 6th position of β-globin chain.
Q163. (b) Klinefelter syndrome: 47, XXY — male phenotype with feminine features, often sterile.
Q164. (b) Females are XX; males XY. Sperm carrying X → girl, Y → boy.
Q165. (b) Red-green colour blindness is X-linked recessive — more common in males.
Q166. (b) Genetic evidence shows chimpanzees share ~98–99% DNA with humans — closest living relative.
Q167. (b) Galapagos finches diversified from a common ancestor into different beak forms — classic adaptive radiation.
Q168. (b) Australopithecus (~3.5–4 mya) was an early bipedal hominin; Lucy (A. afarensis) is iconic.
Q169. (b) Widal test detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever).
Q170. (c) HIV is a retrovirus with two copies of single-stranded RNA genome and reverse transcriptase.
Q171. (b) Female Anopheles transmits Plasmodium causing malaria.
Q172. (a) Filariasis (elephantiasis) is caused by the nematode Wuchereria bancrofti, transmitted by Culex mosquitoes.
Q173. (a) Golden rice expresses genes from daffodil/maize and a bacterium to produce β-carotene (provitamin A).
Q174. (b) Eli Lilly’s Humulin (1983) was the first rDNA insulin, produced from E. coli with synthetic A and B chain genes.
Q175. (b) The inactive protoxin (crystal protein) becomes active in the alkaline gut of insect larvae, binds gut cells, causes lysis and death.
Q176. (b) When births + immigration = deaths + emigration, population shows zero growth — stable density.
Q177. (b) Zygotene of prophase I: homologous chromosomes pair to form synaptonemal complex.
Q178. (a) Humans: 46 (2n) somatic; gametes carry haploid 23 chromosomes.
Q179. (b) Exchange of segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes generates new gene combinations.
Q180. (b) Reflex pathway: stimulus → receptor → afferent (sensory) neuron → spinal cord (CNS) → efferent (motor) neuron → effector (muscle/gland).

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