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📥 Download PDF (Free)NEET UG 2026 Re-Exam — Prediction Paper
Set A · Easy · Full-Length (180 Q)
For the 21 June 2026 re-exam · NTA 2026 pattern · ChapterNotes.in
Difficulty: EasyAbout this paper (Easy tier)
Models the most likely re-exam: mostly direct NCERT recall and single-step questions. The realistic, confidence-building paper.
- 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology — 45 each. All compulsory (no optional Section B from 2025).
- Each correct answer: +4. Each wrong answer: −1. Unanswered: 0. Duration: 3 hours.
- Syllabus: NMC-rationalised NCERT 2025 (unchanged for 2026). Standard constants: g = 10 m/s², c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, unless stated.
- This is AI-built practice material for the re-exam, calibrated against the actual NEET 2026 paper. For practice only; not affiliated with NTA.
PHYSICS
45 Questions | All CompulsoryPhysics (Q1 to Q45)
+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is:
The radius of a sphere is measured as (2.0 ± 0.1) cm. The percentage error in its volume is approximately:
A car moving at 20 m/s is brought to rest in 4 s by uniform braking. The distance travelled before stopping is:
A projectile is launched at 45° with a speed of 20 m/s. Its maximum height is (g = 10 m/s²):
A block of mass 2 kg is pulled on a frictionless horizontal surface by a horizontal force of 10 N. Its acceleration is:
In the given figure, two masses 3 kg and 2 kg are connected by a light string over a frictionless pulley (Atwood machine). The acceleration of the system is (g = 10 m/s²):
A force of 10 N displaces a body by 5 m in the direction of the force. The work done is:
The moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:
A torque of 10 N·m acts on a body of moment of inertia 2 kg·m². The angular acceleration produced is:
A solid sphere rolls without slipping. The ratio of its rotational kinetic energy to its total kinetic energy is:
The escape velocity from the surface of Earth is 11.2 km/s. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and same mean density as Earth would be:
A wire of length L and area A has Young’s modulus Y. The force required to produce an elongation equal to its original length is:
Water flows through a horizontal pipe whose cross-sectional area reduces from 4 cm² to 2 cm². If the speed in the wider part is 1 m/s, the speed in the narrower part is:
In an isothermal process for an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is:
A Carnot engine operates between a source at 500 K and a sink at 300 K. Its efficiency is:
A particle in SHM has amplitude A. At what displacement is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?
A spring of force constant 200 N/m carries a mass of 2 kg. The time period of oscillation is approximately:
A string fixed at both ends vibrates in its fundamental mode with frequency 100 Hz. The frequency of its second harmonic is:
Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz are sounded together. The number of beats heard per second is:
The electric field at a distance of 2 m from a point charge of 8 nC is (k = 9 × 10⁹ N·m²/C²):
Three capacitors of 2 μF each are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is:
The energy stored in a 5 μF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 200 V is:
Assertion (A): The electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole is zero. Reason (R): The potential due to the positive charge is cancelled by the equal and opposite potential due to the negative charge at every point on the equatorial line.
A wire carries a current of 2 A. The number of electrons passing through any cross-section per second is approximately (e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C):
A cell of EMF 2 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected to an external resistance of 3.5 Ω. The current in the circuit is:
In the given circuit, three resistors of 6 Ω, 6 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance is:
Match Column I (electrical quantity) with Column II (SI unit): A. Resistivity — i. Ω·m; B. Conductance — ii. siemens (S); C. EMF — iii. volt; D. Power — iv. watt.
A straight conductor of length 0.5 m carrying a current of 4 A is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. The force on the conductor is:
A long solenoid has 1000 turns per metre and carries a current of 2 A. The magnetic field inside it is (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A):
Materials that are weakly repelled by a magnetic field and have negative susceptibility are classified as:
A coil of inductance 0.4 H carries a current that changes at the rate of 5 A/s. The magnitude of the induced EMF is:
In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the impedance of the circuit is equal to:
An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 500 turns in the secondary. If the primary voltage is 220 V, the secondary voltage is:
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?
An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image distance is:
The refractive index of a medium in which light travels at 2 × 10⁸ m/s is (c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s):
Assertion (A): Total internal reflection can occur only when light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium. Reason (R): The critical angle exists only when the refracted ray bends away from the normal.
In Young’s double-slit experiment, two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is 1 m away. For light of wavelength 600 nm, the fringe width is:
The work function of a metal is 2 eV. The threshold wavelength for the photoelectric effect is approximately (hc = 1240 eV·nm):
The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its:
The energy of the electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. Its energy in the first excited state (n = 2) is:
The half-life of a radioactive sample is 10 days. The fraction of the sample remaining undecayed after 30 days is:
Assertion (A): The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for iron (around A = 56). Reason (R): Nuclei near iron are the most stable nuclei.
In a p-n junction diode under forward bias, the width of the depletion region:
How many of the following statements about a Zener diode and rectifiers are correct? (1) A Zener diode is operated in reverse bias as a voltage regulator. (2) A half-wave rectifier uses only one diode. (3) A full-wave rectifier output has ripple frequency double that of a half-wave rectifier for the same input. (4) A Zener diode is heavily doped compared to an ordinary diode.
CHEMISTRY
45 Questions | All CompulsoryChemistry (Q46 to Q90)
+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), the relation between Kp and Kc is (R = gas constant, T = temperature):
The pH of a 0.001 M HCl solution at 298 K is:
For the equilibrium 2NO₂(g) ⇌ N₂O₄(g) (ΔH = −58 kJ), increasing the temperature will:
The solubility product (Ksp) of a sparingly soluble salt AB is 4 × 10⁻¹⁰. Its solubility in pure water (in mol L⁻¹) is:
The IUPAC name of the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is:
The spin-only magnetic moment of [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ (Ni²⁺ = d⁸) is approximately:
In the complex [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺, the oxidation state of cobalt and the coordination number are respectively:
Match List I (complex) with List II (geometry / hybridisation) and choose the correct option: List I: (A) [Ni(CO)₄] (B) [PtCl₄]²⁻ (C) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (D) [CoCl₄]²⁻ List II: (i) octahedral, d²sp³ (ii) square planar, dsp² (iii) tetrahedral, sp³ (iv) tetrahedral, sp³
The most stable carbocation among the following is:
The number of structural (chain + position) isomers possible for the molecular formula C₄H₁₀ is:
In the nitro group of nitromethane (CH₃–NO₂), the two N–O bonds are equivalent. This is best explained by:
For a first-order reaction, the half-life (t₁/₂) is related to the rate constant k by:
The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.0231 min⁻¹. The half-life of the reaction (in minutes) is:
For the reaction A + 2B → products, the rate law is found to be Rate = k[A][B]. The overall order of the reaction is:
The correct order of basic strength of the following amines in aqueous solution is:
A primary amine on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH gives a foul-smelling isocyanide. This test is called:
Benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by treating aniline with NaNO₂ and HCl at a temperature of:
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of the SF₆ molecule and the hybridisation of sulphur are:
The bond order of the nitrogen molecule (N₂) according to molecular orbital theory is:
Statement I: H₂O has a higher boiling point than H₂S. Statement II: H₂O molecules are associated through intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Choose the correct option:
For a reaction, ΔG° = −RT ln K. If ΔG° is negative, the reaction is:
Using Hess’s law, the enthalpy of a reaction depends on:
The enthalpy change for the reaction C(s) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g), ΔH = −393.5 kJ/mol, represents the standard enthalpy of:
The hybridisation of the central atom and shape of XeF₄ are:
Which of the following is an interhalogen compound?
The correct order of acidic strength of the oxoacids of chlorine is:
Acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO) on treatment with dilute NaOH undergoes aldol condensation to give:
Which of the following does NOT have an α-hydrogen and hence undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction?
The correct order of acidic strength of the following carboxylic acids is:
The bond formed between two monosaccharide units in a disaccharide is called a:
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
According to the Nernst equation, the EMF of a cell increases when:
According to Kohlrausch’s law, the molar conductivity at infinite dilution (Λ°ₘ) of an electrolyte is:
Which of the following is a colligative property of a dilute solution?
The van’t Hoff factor (i) for NaCl, assuming complete dissociation in water, is:
The addition of HBr to propene (CH₃–CH=CH₂) in the absence of peroxide gives, as the major product:
Which of the following is the correct number of π-bonds in a benzene molecule (C₆H₆)?
The correct order of acidic strength is:
Williamson’s synthesis is the best method for preparing:
Assertion (A): Tertiary alkyl halides undergo SN1 reactions faster than primary alkyl halides. Reason (R): Tertiary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations. Choose the correct option:
The element of the 3d series that exhibits the maximum number of oxidation states is:
The number of moles present in 11 g of CO₂ (molar mass = 44 g/mol) is:
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a subshell with azimuthal quantum number l = 2 is:
In the compound K₂Cr₂O₇, the oxidation number of chromium is:
Across a period from left to right in the periodic table, the atomic radius generally:
BOTANY
45 Questions | All CompulsoryBotany (Q91 to Q135)
+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
In Mendel’s monohybrid cross between a pure tall (TT) and pure dwarf (tt) pea plant, the phenotypic ratio obtained in the F2 generation is:
In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous (RrYy) pea plants, the F2 phenotypic ratio obtained by Mendel was:
In snapdragon (Antirrhinum), a cross between a red-flowered (RR) and white-flowered (rr) plant produces pink-flowered F1. This is an example of:
In humans, the ABO blood group is controlled by multiple alleles. The alleles I^A and I^B are codominant, while i is recessive. A person with blood group AB has the genotype:
Down’s syndrome in humans is caused by:
Turner’s syndrome in humans is characterized by the chromosomal constitution:
In a transcription unit, the segment of DNA towards the 5′ end of the structural gene where RNA polymerase binds is called the:
The genetic code is degenerate. This means that:
In the lac operon of E. coli, the repressor protein is synthesized by the:
The semiconservative mode of DNA replication was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl using:
During RNA processing in eukaryotes, the removal of introns and joining of exons is called:
In the five-kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker, the kingdom Monera includes:
The reserve food material stored in the members of Chlorophyceae (green algae) is:
In bryophytes, the main plant body is the gametophyte, and the dominant phase of the life cycle is:
How many of the following features are characteristic of the kingdom Fungi? (i) Cell wall made of chitin (ii) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition (iii) Reserve food as glycogen (iv) Presence of chlorophyll
The family Solanaceae is characterized by which type of placentation?
In a flower, when sepals are fused together, the condition is described as:
When stamens are attached to the petals (fused with the corolla), the condition is called:
In the family Fabaceae, the type of aestivation found in the corolla is:
In C4 plants, the special anatomy of leaves in which bundle sheath cells surround the vascular bundles is known as:
The primary CO2 acceptor in the C4 pathway (Hatch and Slack pathway) is:
Assertion (A): C4 plants are more efficient in CO2 fixation than C3 plants. Reason (R): C4 plants lack the enzyme RuBisCO and use only PEP carboxylase.
In glycolysis, the partial oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields a net gain of:
The Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) takes place in the:
The plant growth regulator responsible for apical dominance is:
The gaseous plant growth regulator that promotes fruit ripening and senescence is:
Vernalisation refers to the promotion of flowering by:
In a typical angiosperm, the mature embryo sac is:
During double fertilisation in angiosperms, the fusion of one male gamete with the two polar nuclei is called:
Pollination by water is termed:
DNA synthesis (replication) in the cell cycle occurs during which phase?
The phase of meiosis during which crossing over (exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes) occurs is:
In plant cells, cytokinesis takes place by the formation of a:
The cell organelle known as the ‘powerhouse of the cell’ because it produces ATP is the:
A non-protein constituent (such as a metal ion) bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called a:
Cellulose, a major structural polysaccharide of the plant cell wall, is a polymer of:
In recombinant DNA technology, the molecular scissors used to cut DNA at specific recognition sequences are:
The technique used to amplify (make multiple copies of) a specific segment of DNA in vitro is:
In Bt cotton, the insecticidal protein (Bt toxin) is derived from which bacterium?
According to the 10 percent law of energy flow in an ecosystem, only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. If producers contain 10,000 J of energy, the energy available to the secondary consumers will be:
The amount of organic matter produced by plants (producers) per unit area over a time period during photosynthesis is called:
The interaction in which both interacting species are benefited is called:
The growth of a population in an environment with limited resources, giving a sigmoid (S-shaped) curve, is described as:
The species diversity of plants and animals is generally highest in the:
The conservation of biodiversity within its natural habitat, such as in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, is called:
ZOOLOGY
45 Questions | All CompulsoryZoology (Q136 to Q180)
+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.
The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognises and cuts the palindromic sequence:
In the cloning vector pBR322, the gene used as one of the selectable markers is:
In the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), the step in which the double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands by heating is called:
In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated on an agarose gel and move towards the:
The enzyme that joins two DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds during recombinant DNA technology is:
The first recombinant human insulin produced by Eli Lilly was named Humulin. It consists of two polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by:
Bt cotton has been made resistant to certain insect pests by introducing genes from the bacterium:
Gene therapy was first used in 1990 to treat a 4-year-old girl suffering from a deficiency of the enzyme:
Enzymes that catalyse the transfer of a group (other than hydrogen) between two substrates belong to the class:
The respiratory quotient (RQ) for the oxidation of carbohydrates such as glucose is:
A non-protein constituent tightly bound to the enzyme protein that is essential for catalytic activity is the:
In a protein, the linear sequence of amino acids constitutes its:
The respiratory quotient (RQ) for the oxidation of fats is approximately:
The diagnostic feature of the phylum Echinodermata is the presence of:
Animals in which the body can be divided into two equal halves by any plane passing through the centre show:
Match List I (Animal) with List II (Phylum): A. Pleurobrachia, B. Sycon, C. Aurelia, D. Asterias; I. Porifera, II. Ctenophora, III. Cnidaria, IV. Echinodermata.
Which of the following animals is correctly placed as a true coelomate (eucoelomate)?
In human spermatogenesis, each secondary spermatocyte is haploid and arises from a primary spermatocyte by:
The surge of which hormone induces ovulation (rupture of the Graafian follicle) at about the 14th day of the menstrual cycle?
Arrange the correct sequence of events after fertilisation in the human female: 1. Zygote, 2. Morula, 3. Blastocyst, 4. Implantation.
In the assisted reproductive technology GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer), what is transferred into the fallopian tube?
Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception in females?
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, if the frequency of the dominant allele p = 0.7, the frequency of the recessive allele q is:
The forelimbs of a whale, a bat and a human have a similar basic structural plan but perform different functions. Such organs are called:
The correct sequence in human evolution is:
In the transport of carbon dioxide, the majority (about 70%) of CO2 is carried in the blood as:
In the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, a shift to the right (release of more O2 to tissues) is favoured by:
The volume of air that can be inspired forcefully over and above the normal tidal volume is called:
In the human cardiac cycle, the ‘lub’ (first heart sound) is produced by the closure of the:
In a normal ECG, the QRS complex represents:
The counter-current mechanism that maintains the concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium of the kidney operates between the:
The hormone that increases water reabsorption (facultative) by acting on the distal tubule and collecting duct, thereby reducing urine output, is:
According to the sliding filament theory, muscle contraction occurs when the:
During muscle contraction, which band of the sarcomere remains constant in length?
The joint present between the atlas and axis vertebrae, which allows rotation of the head, is an example of a:
The type of immunity present at the time of birth that provides non-specific, first-line defence is called:
The malarial parasite Plasmodium is transmitted to humans by the bite of:
During the rising phase of an action potential, the axonal membrane becomes:
The part of the human eye that contains the highest concentration of cones and gives the sharpest (most acute) vision is the:
Match List I (Endocrine gland) with List II (Hormone): A. Thyroid, B. Pancreas (β-cells), C. Adrenal medulla, D. Adrenal cortex; I. Insulin, II. Thyroxine, III. Cortisol, IV. Adrenaline.
Steroid hormones act on their target cells by:
The type of epithelial tissue that lines the inner surface of blood vessels and air sacs (alveoli), allowing diffusion, is:
In a biogas (gobar gas) plant, the methane-producing microbes belong to the group of:
Match List I (Microbe) with List II (Product/Use): A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B. Penicillium notatum, C. Lactobacillus, D. Trichoderma polysporum; I. Antibiotic (penicillin), II. Bread/ethanol, III. Cyclosporin A, IV. Curd.
Down’s syndrome in humans is a chromosomal disorder caused by:
PHYSICS — Answer Key (Q1–Q45)
CHEMISTRY — Answer Key (Q46–Q90)
BOTANY — Answer Key (Q91–Q135)
ZOOLOGY — Answer Key (Q136–Q180)
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