NEET 2026 Re-Exam Prediction Paper — Set A (Easy) (Free PDF)

Free · 1-hour challenge · predicted score
🎯 Know your re-NEET score before 21 June

Take the free 1-hour diagnostic and get a predicted NEET score that climbs as you practise. Gamified questions, instant explanations and daily revision for the re-exam — no cost, no install.

Get my predicted score →
100% free · works in your browser · built for the 21 June re-exam

Download NEET 2026 Re-Exam Prediction Paper PDF (Free)

Print-friendly branded PDF — save it, print it, or share it with friends. No sign-up needed.

📥 Download PDF (Free)

NEET UG 2026 Re-Exam — Prediction Paper

Set A · Easy · Full-Length (180 Q)

For the 21 June 2026 re-exam · NTA 2026 pattern · ChapterNotes.in

Difficulty: Easy

Questions

180

Max Marks

720

Duration

3 hours

Marking

+4 / −1

About this paper (Easy tier)

Models the most likely re-exam: mostly direct NCERT recall and single-step questions. The realistic, confidence-building paper.

  1. 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology — 45 each. All compulsory (no optional Section B from 2025).
  2. Each correct answer: +4. Each wrong answer: −1. Unanswered: 0. Duration: 3 hours.
  3. Syllabus: NMC-rationalised NCERT 2025 (unchanged for 2026). Standard constants: g = 10 m/s², c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, unless stated.
  4. This is AI-built practice material for the re-exam, calibrated against the actual NEET 2026 paper. For practice only; not affiliated with NTA.

PHYSICS

Physics (Q1 to Q45)

+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q1

The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is:

(a) [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
(b) [M L⁰T⁻¹]
(c) [MLT⁻¹]
(d) [ML⁻²T⁻²]
Q2

The radius of a sphere is measured as (2.0 ± 0.1) cm. The percentage error in its volume is approximately:

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 3%
(d) 5%
Q3

A car moving at 20 m/s is brought to rest in 4 s by uniform braking. The distance travelled before stopping is:

(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 40 m
Q4

A projectile is launched at 45° with a speed of 20 m/s. Its maximum height is (g = 10 m/s²):

(a) 10 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 20 m
Q5

A block of mass 2 kg is pulled on a frictionless horizontal surface by a horizontal force of 10 N. Its acceleration is:

(a) 2 m/s²
(b) 20 m/s²
(c) 5 m/s²
(d) 10 m/s²
Q6

In the given figure, two masses 3 kg and 2 kg are connected by a light string over a frictionless pulley (Atwood machine). The acceleration of the system is (g = 10 m/s²):

(a) 5 m/s²
(b) 1 m/s²
(c) 2 m/s²
(d) 4 m/s²
Q7

A force of 10 N displaces a body by 5 m in the direction of the force. The work done is:

(a) 2 J
(b) 50 J
(c) 0.5 J
(d) 15 J
Q8

The moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:

(a) (2/5)MR²
(b) (1/2)MR²
(c) MR²
(d) (2/3)MR²
Q9

A torque of 10 N·m acts on a body of moment of inertia 2 kg·m². The angular acceleration produced is:

(a) 2 rad/s²
(b) 5 rad/s²
(c) 0.2 rad/s²
(d) 20 rad/s²
Q10

A solid sphere rolls without slipping. The ratio of its rotational kinetic energy to its total kinetic energy is:

(a) 5/7
(b) 2/5
(c) 2/7
(d) 1/2
Q11

The escape velocity from the surface of Earth is 11.2 km/s. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and same mean density as Earth would be:

(a) 22.4 km/s
(b) 5.6 km/s
(c) 16.8 km/s
(d) 11.2 km/s
Q12

A wire of length L and area A has Young’s modulus Y. The force required to produce an elongation equal to its original length is:

(a) YA
(b) YA/L
(c) YAL
(d) Y/A
Q13

Water flows through a horizontal pipe whose cross-sectional area reduces from 4 cm² to 2 cm². If the speed in the wider part is 1 m/s, the speed in the narrower part is:

(a) 4 m/s
(b) 1 m/s
(c) 2 m/s
(d) 0.5 m/s
Q14

In an isothermal process for an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is:

(a) Always positive
(b) Equal to work done
(c) Equal to heat absorbed
(d) Zero
Q15

A Carnot engine operates between a source at 500 K and a sink at 300 K. Its efficiency is:

(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 60%
(d) 20%
Q16

A particle in SHM has amplitude A. At what displacement is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?

(a) A/2
(b) A/√3
(c) A
(d) A/√2
Q17

A spring of force constant 200 N/m carries a mass of 2 kg. The time period of oscillation is approximately:

(a) 0.31 s
(b) 1.26 s
(c) 0.1 s
(d) 0.63 s
Q18

A string fixed at both ends vibrates in its fundamental mode with frequency 100 Hz. The frequency of its second harmonic is:

(a) 300 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 100 Hz
(d) 200 Hz
Q19

Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz are sounded together. The number of beats heard per second is:

(a) 516
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 4
Q20

The electric field at a distance of 2 m from a point charge of 8 nC is (k = 9 × 10⁹ N·m²/C²):

(a) 9 N/C
(b) 18 N/C
(c) 4.5 N/C
(d) 36 N/C
Q21

Three capacitors of 2 μF each are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is:

(a) 3/2 μF
(b) 6 μF
(c) 2 μF
(d) 2/3 μF
Q22

The energy stored in a 5 μF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 200 V is:

(a) 1 J
(b) 0.05 J
(c) 0.1 J
(d) 0.2 J
Q23

Assertion (A): The electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole is zero. Reason (R): The potential due to the positive charge is cancelled by the equal and opposite potential due to the negative charge at every point on the equatorial line.

(a) A is false but R is true
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q24

A wire carries a current of 2 A. The number of electrons passing through any cross-section per second is approximately (e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C):

(a) 0.8 × 10¹⁹
(b) 1.25 × 10¹⁹
(c) 1.6 × 10¹⁹
(d) 2 × 10¹⁹
Q25

A cell of EMF 2 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected to an external resistance of 3.5 Ω. The current in the circuit is:

(a) 0.5 A
(b) 0.4 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 1 A
Q26

In the given circuit, three resistors of 6 Ω, 6 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance is:

(a) 18 Ω
(b) 6 Ω
(c) 2 Ω
(d) 3 Ω
Q27

Match Column I (electrical quantity) with Column II (SI unit): A. Resistivity — i. Ω·m; B. Conductance — ii. siemens (S); C. EMF — iii. volt; D. Power — iv. watt.

(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(c) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
Q28

A straight conductor of length 0.5 m carrying a current of 4 A is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. The force on the conductor is:

(a) 1.6 N
(b) 0.4 N
(c) 0.2 N
(d) 0.8 N
Q29

A long solenoid has 1000 turns per metre and carries a current of 2 A. The magnetic field inside it is (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A):

(a) 2.5 × 10⁻² T
(b) 2.5 × 10⁻³ T
(c) 5 × 10⁻³ T
(d) 1.25 × 10⁻³ T
Q30

Materials that are weakly repelled by a magnetic field and have negative susceptibility are classified as:

(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Ferrimagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Paramagnetic
Q31

A coil of inductance 0.4 H carries a current that changes at the rate of 5 A/s. The magnitude of the induced EMF is:

(a) 8 V
(b) 2 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 0.08 V
Q32

In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the impedance of the circuit is equal to:

(a) X_C
(b) X_L
(c) Zero
(d) R
Q33

An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 500 turns in the secondary. If the primary voltage is 220 V, the secondary voltage is:

(a) 44 V
(b) 1100 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 550 V
Q34

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength?

(a) X-rays
(b) Radio waves
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Gamma rays
Q35

An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image distance is:

(a) 60 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 30 cm
Q36

The refractive index of a medium in which light travels at 2 × 10⁸ m/s is (c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s):

(a) 3
(b) 0.67
(c) 2
(d) 1.5
Q37

Assertion (A): Total internal reflection can occur only when light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium. Reason (R): The critical angle exists only when the refracted ray bends away from the normal.

(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q38

In Young’s double-slit experiment, two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is 1 m away. For light of wavelength 600 nm, the fringe width is:

(a) 0.6 mm
(b) 1.2 mm
(c) 6 mm
(d) 0.3 mm
Q39

The work function of a metal is 2 eV. The threshold wavelength for the photoelectric effect is approximately (hc = 1240 eV·nm):

(a) 310 nm
(b) 248 nm
(c) 620 nm
(d) 1240 nm
Q40

The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its:

(a) Momentum
(b) Charge
(c) Energy squared
(d) Wavelength
Q41

The energy of the electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. Its energy in the first excited state (n = 2) is:

(a) −6.8 eV
(b) −3.4 eV
(c) −13.6 eV
(d) −1.51 eV
Q42

The half-life of a radioactive sample is 10 days. The fraction of the sample remaining undecayed after 30 days is:

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/6
(d) 1/8
Q43

Assertion (A): The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for iron (around A = 56). Reason (R): Nuclei near iron are the most stable nuclei.

(a) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A is true but R is false
Q44

In a p-n junction diode under forward bias, the width of the depletion region:

(a) Becomes infinite
(b) Remains unchanged
(c) Increases
(d) Decreases
Q45

How many of the following statements about a Zener diode and rectifiers are correct? (1) A Zener diode is operated in reverse bias as a voltage regulator. (2) A half-wave rectifier uses only one diode. (3) A full-wave rectifier output has ripple frequency double that of a half-wave rectifier for the same input. (4) A Zener diode is heavily doped compared to an ordinary diode.

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1

CHEMISTRY

Chemistry (Q46 to Q90)

+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q46

For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), the relation between Kp and Kc is (R = gas constant, T = temperature):

(a) Kp = Kc(RT)
(b) Kp = Kc(RT)⁻²
(c) Kp = Kc(RT)²
(d) Kp = Kc(RT)⁻¹
Q47

The pH of a 0.001 M HCl solution at 298 K is:

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 11
Q48

For the equilibrium 2NO₂(g) ⇌ N₂O₄(g) (ΔH = −58 kJ), increasing the temperature will:

(a) Have no effect on the equilibrium position
(b) Shift the equilibrium forward (towards N₂O₄)
(c) Shift the equilibrium backward (towards NO₂)
(d) Increase the value of Kp
Q49

The solubility product (Ksp) of a sparingly soluble salt AB is 4 × 10⁻¹⁰. Its solubility in pure water (in mol L⁻¹) is:

(a) 4 × 10⁻⁵
(b) 2 × 10⁻⁵
(c) 1 × 10⁻⁵
(d) 2 × 10⁻¹⁰
Q50

The IUPAC name of the complex K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is:

(a) Potassium hexacyanoiron(II)
(b) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(II)
(c) Tetrapotassium ferrocyanide
(d) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)
Q51

The spin-only magnetic moment of [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ (Ni²⁺ = d⁸) is approximately:

(a) 0 BM
(b) 2.83 BM
(c) 1.73 BM
(d) 3.87 BM
Q52

In the complex [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺, the oxidation state of cobalt and the coordination number are respectively:

(a) +2 and 6
(b) +6 and 6
(c) +3 and 3
(d) +3 and 6
Q53

Match List I (complex) with List II (geometry / hybridisation) and choose the correct option: List I: (A) [Ni(CO)₄] (B) [PtCl₄]²⁻ (C) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (D) [CoCl₄]²⁻ List II: (i) octahedral, d²sp³ (ii) square planar, dsp² (iii) tetrahedral, sp³ (iv) tetrahedral, sp³

(a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
Q54

The most stable carbocation among the following is:

(a) (CH₃)₃C⁺ (tert-butyl)
(b) CH₂=CH⁺ (vinyl)
(c) CH₃⁺ (methyl)
(d) CH₃CH₂⁺ (ethyl)
Q55

The number of structural (chain + position) isomers possible for the molecular formula C₄H₁₀ is:

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
Q56

In the nitro group of nitromethane (CH₃–NO₂), the two N–O bonds are equivalent. This is best explained by:

(a) Hydrogen bonding
(b) Inductive effect
(c) Resonance (delocalisation of electrons)
(d) Hyperconjugation
Q57

For a first-order reaction, the half-life (t₁/₂) is related to the rate constant k by:

(a) t₁/₂ = k/0.693
(b) t₁/₂ = 0.693k
(c) t₁/₂ = 1/(k[A]₀)
(d) t₁/₂ = 0.693/k
Q58

The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.0231 min⁻¹. The half-life of the reaction (in minutes) is:

(a) 23.1
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 15
Q59

For the reaction A + 2B → products, the rate law is found to be Rate = k[A][B]. The overall order of the reaction is:

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 3
Q60

The correct order of basic strength of the following amines in aqueous solution is:

(a) NH₃ > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₂NH > C₆H₅NH₂
(b) CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₂NH > C₆H₅NH₂ > NH₃
(c) C₆H₅NH₂ > NH₃ > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₂NH
(d) (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂
Q61

A primary amine on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH gives a foul-smelling isocyanide. This test is called:

(a) Carbylamine test
(b) Diazotisation
(c) Liebermann’s test
(d) Hinsberg test
Q62

Benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by treating aniline with NaNO₂ and HCl at a temperature of:

(a) 60–70 °C
(b) 0–5 °C
(c) 100 °C
(d) 25–30 °C
Q63

According to VSEPR theory, the shape of the SF₆ molecule and the hybridisation of sulphur are:

(a) Octahedral, sp³d²
(b) Tetrahedral, sp³
(c) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp³d
(d) Square planar, dsp²
Q64

The bond order of the nitrogen molecule (N₂) according to molecular orbital theory is:

(a) 2.5
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3
Q65

Statement I: H₂O has a higher boiling point than H₂S. Statement II: H₂O molecules are associated through intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Choose the correct option:

(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and II correctly explains I
(c) Both statements are true but II does not explain I
(d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
Q66

For a reaction, ΔG° = −RT ln K. If ΔG° is negative, the reaction is:

(a) Spontaneous and K < 1
(b) Spontaneous and K > 1
(c) Non-spontaneous and K < 1
(d) At equilibrium with K = 1
Q67

Using Hess’s law, the enthalpy of a reaction depends on:

(a) The path followed by the reaction
(b) The catalyst used
(c) Only the initial and final states, not the path
(d) The number of steps in the mechanism
Q68

The enthalpy change for the reaction C(s) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g), ΔH = −393.5 kJ/mol, represents the standard enthalpy of:

(a) Combustion of CO₂(g)
(b) Atomisation of carbon
(c) Neutralisation
(d) Formation of CO₂(g)
Q69

The hybridisation of the central atom and shape of XeF₄ are:

(a) sp³d², square planar
(b) sp³d, see-saw
(c) sp³, tetrahedral
(d) sp³d², octahedral
Q70

Which of the following is an interhalogen compound?

(a) HClO₄
(b) NaCl
(c) ClF₃
(d) ClO₂
Q71

The correct order of acidic strength of the oxoacids of chlorine is:

(a) HClO > HClO₂ > HClO₃ > HClO₄
(b) HClO₃ > HClO₄ > HClO₂ > HClO
(c) HClO₂ > HClO₃ > HClO₄ > HClO
(d) HClO₄ > HClO₃ > HClO₂ > HClO
Q72

Acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO) on treatment with dilute NaOH undergoes aldol condensation to give:

(a) Acetic acid + ethanol
(b) Butane
(c) 3-hydroxybutanal
(d) Crotonaldehyde directly without hydroxy intermediate
Q73

Which of the following does NOT have an α-hydrogen and hence undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction?

(a) CH₃CHO (acetaldehyde)
(b) CH₃CH₂CHO (propanal)
(c) HCHO (formaldehyde)
(d) CH₃COCH₃ (acetone)
Q74

The correct order of acidic strength of the following carboxylic acids is:

(a) CH₃CH₂COOH > HCOOH > CH₃COOH
(b) CH₃COOH > HCOOH > CH₃CH₂COOH
(c) HCOOH > CH₃COOH > CH₃CH₂COOH
(d) CH₃CH₂COOH > CH₃COOH > HCOOH
Q75

The bond formed between two monosaccharide units in a disaccharide is called a:

(a) Glycosidic bond
(b) Ester bond
(c) Phosphodiester bond
(d) Peptide bond
Q76

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

(a) Vitamin B₁₂
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B₁
Q77

According to the Nernst equation, the EMF of a cell increases when:

(a) The concentration of product ions at the cathode increases
(b) The number of electrons (n) is doubled with everything else fixed
(c) The concentration of reactant ions at the cathode increases
(d) Temperature has no effect at all
Q78

According to Kohlrausch’s law, the molar conductivity at infinite dilution (Λ°ₘ) of an electrolyte is:

(a) Independent of the ions present
(b) The sum of the limiting molar conductivities of its cations and anions
(c) The product of cation and anion conductivities
(d) Equal to the conductivity of pure water
Q79

Which of the following is a colligative property of a dilute solution?

(a) Osmotic pressure
(b) Viscosity
(c) Surface tension
(d) Refractive index
Q80

The van’t Hoff factor (i) for NaCl, assuming complete dissociation in water, is:

(a) 2
(b) 0.5
(c) 3
(d) 1
Q81

The addition of HBr to propene (CH₃–CH=CH₂) in the absence of peroxide gives, as the major product:

(a) propan-2-ol
(b) 1-bromopropane
(c) 2-bromopropane
(d) 1,2-dibromopropane
Q82

Which of the following is the correct number of π-bonds in a benzene molecule (C₆H₆)?

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 6
(d) 3
Q83

The correct order of acidic strength is:

(a) Carboxylic acid < Phenol < Water
(b) Phenol < Water < Carboxylic acid
(c) Water < Carboxylic acid < Phenol
(d) Water < Phenol < Carboxylic acid
Q84

Williamson’s synthesis is the best method for preparing:

(a) Amines
(b) Carboxylic acids
(c) Aldehydes
(d) Ethers (including unsymmetrical ethers)
Q85

Assertion (A): Tertiary alkyl halides undergo SN1 reactions faster than primary alkyl halides. Reason (R): Tertiary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations. Choose the correct option:

(a) A is true but R is false
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true
Q86

The element of the 3d series that exhibits the maximum number of oxidation states is:

(a) Zn
(b) Cu
(c) Mn
(d) Sc
Q87

The number of moles present in 11 g of CO₂ (molar mass = 44 g/mol) is:

(a) 1.0
(b) 0.025
(c) 0.25
(d) 0.5
Q88

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a subshell with azimuthal quantum number l = 2 is:

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 2
Q89

In the compound K₂Cr₂O₇, the oxidation number of chromium is:

(a) +7
(b) +3
(c) +6
(d) +2
Q90

Across a period from left to right in the periodic table, the atomic radius generally:

(a) Decreases due to increasing nuclear charge
(b) Remains constant
(c) Increases due to increasing number of shells
(d) Increases due to increasing screening effect

BOTANY

Botany (Q91 to Q135)

+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q91

In Mendel’s monohybrid cross between a pure tall (TT) and pure dwarf (tt) pea plant, the phenotypic ratio obtained in the F2 generation is:

(a) 2 tall : 1 dwarf
(b) 1 tall : 1 dwarf
(c) 9 tall : 7 dwarf
(d) 3 tall : 1 dwarf
Q92

In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous (RrYy) pea plants, the F2 phenotypic ratio obtained by Mendel was:

(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(d) 12 : 3 : 1
Q93

In snapdragon (Antirrhinum), a cross between a red-flowered (RR) and white-flowered (rr) plant produces pink-flowered F1. This is an example of:

(a) Incomplete dominance
(b) Epistasis
(c) Complete dominance
(d) Codominance
Q94

In humans, the ABO blood group is controlled by multiple alleles. The alleles I^A and I^B are codominant, while i is recessive. A person with blood group AB has the genotype:

(a) I^A I^B
(b) ii
(c) I^B i
(d) I^A i
Q95

Down’s syndrome in humans is caused by:

(a) Trisomy of chromosome 21
(b) An extra X chromosome
(c) Trisomy of chromosome 18
(d) Monosomy of chromosome 21
Q96

Turner’s syndrome in humans is characterized by the chromosomal constitution:

(a) 47, XXY
(b) 47, +21
(c) 47, XYY
(d) 45, X0
Q97

In a transcription unit, the segment of DNA towards the 5′ end of the structural gene where RNA polymerase binds is called the:

(a) Promoter
(b) Enhancer
(c) Operator
(d) Terminator
Q98

The genetic code is degenerate. This means that:

(a) One codon codes for more than one amino acid
(b) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon
(c) The code is read in a non-overlapping manner
(d) The code has no punctuations
Q99

In the lac operon of E. coli, the repressor protein is synthesized by the:

(a) a gene
(b) i gene (regulator gene)
(c) y gene
(d) z gene
Q100

The semiconservative mode of DNA replication was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl using:

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae transformation
(b) Escherichia coli grown in heavy nitrogen (15N)
(c) Tobacco mosaic virus reconstitution
(d) Bacteriophage labelled with 32P
Q101

During RNA processing in eukaryotes, the removal of introns and joining of exons is called:

(a) Capping and tailing
(b) Tailing
(c) Capping
(d) Splicing
Q102

In the five-kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker, the kingdom Monera includes:

(a) Slime moulds
(b) Protozoa
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
Q103

The reserve food material stored in the members of Chlorophyceae (green algae) is:

(a) Floridean starch
(b) Mannitol
(c) Starch
(d) Laminarin
Q104

In bryophytes, the main plant body is the gametophyte, and the dominant phase of the life cycle is:

(a) Diploid sporophyte
(b) Haploid gametophyte
(c) Triploid endosperm
(d) Diploid gametophyte
Q105

How many of the following features are characteristic of the kingdom Fungi? (i) Cell wall made of chitin (ii) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition (iii) Reserve food as glycogen (iv) Presence of chlorophyll

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Q106

The family Solanaceae is characterized by which type of placentation?

(a) Parietal
(b) Marginal
(c) Free central
(d) Axile
Q107

In a flower, when sepals are fused together, the condition is described as:

(a) Polysepalous
(b) Gamopetalous
(c) Gamosepalous
(d) Polypetalous
Q108

When stamens are attached to the petals (fused with the corolla), the condition is called:

(a) Epipetalous
(b) Gamosepalous
(c) Polyandrous
(d) Epiphyllous
Q109

In the family Fabaceae, the type of aestivation found in the corolla is:

(a) Vexillary (descending imbricate)
(b) Imbricate ascending
(c) Twisted
(d) Valvate
Q110

In C4 plants, the special anatomy of leaves in which bundle sheath cells surround the vascular bundles is known as:

(a) Isobilateral anatomy
(b) Centric anatomy
(c) Dorsiventral anatomy
(d) Kranz anatomy
Q111

The primary CO2 acceptor in the C4 pathway (Hatch and Slack pathway) is:

(a) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)
(b) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
(c) Pyruvate
(d) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
Q112

Assertion (A): C4 plants are more efficient in CO2 fixation than C3 plants. Reason (R): C4 plants lack the enzyme RuBisCO and use only PEP carboxylase.

(a) Both A and R are false
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q113

In glycolysis, the partial oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields a net gain of:

(a) 4 ATP molecules
(b) 6 ATP molecules
(c) 2 ATP molecules
(d) 8 ATP molecules
Q114

The Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) takes place in the:

(a) Chloroplast stroma
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Mitochondrial matrix
Q115

The plant growth regulator responsible for apical dominance is:

(a) Auxin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin
Q116

The gaseous plant growth regulator that promotes fruit ripening and senescence is:

(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Q117

Vernalisation refers to the promotion of flowering by:

(a) Exposure to red light
(b) Long photoperiods
(c) High temperature treatment
(d) A period of low temperature
Q118

In a typical angiosperm, the mature embryo sac is:

(a) 7-celled and 8-nucleate
(b) 8-celled and 7-nucleate
(c) 7-celled and 7-nucleate
(d) 8-celled and 8-nucleate
Q119

During double fertilisation in angiosperms, the fusion of one male gamete with the two polar nuclei is called:

(a) Syngamy
(b) Porogamy
(c) Generative apogamy
(d) Triple fusion
Q120

Pollination by water is termed:

(a) Hydrophily
(b) Ornithophily
(c) Entomophily
(d) Anemophily
Q121

DNA synthesis (replication) in the cell cycle occurs during which phase?

(a) G2 phase
(b) G1 phase
(c) M phase
(d) S phase
Q122

The phase of meiosis during which crossing over (exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes) occurs is:

(a) Anaphase II
(b) Metaphase I
(c) Pachytene of prophase I
(d) Diplotene of prophase II
Q123

In plant cells, cytokinesis takes place by the formation of a:

(a) Mid-body
(b) Cleavage furrow
(c) Cell plate
(d) Contractile ring
Q124

The cell organelle known as the ‘powerhouse of the cell’ because it produces ATP is the:

(a) Lysosome
(b) Ribosome
(c) Mitochondrion
(d) Golgi apparatus
Q125

A non-protein constituent (such as a metal ion) bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called a:

(a) Cofactor
(b) Substrate
(c) Product
(d) Holoenzyme
Q126

Cellulose, a major structural polysaccharide of the plant cell wall, is a polymer of:

(a) Galactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fructose
(d) Mannose
Q127

In recombinant DNA technology, the molecular scissors used to cut DNA at specific recognition sequences are:

(a) Helicases
(b) Restriction endonucleases
(c) DNA polymerases
(d) DNA ligases
Q128

The technique used to amplify (make multiple copies of) a specific segment of DNA in vitro is:

(a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(b) Gel electrophoresis
(c) DNA fingerprinting
(d) Southern blotting
Q129

In Bt cotton, the insecticidal protein (Bt toxin) is derived from which bacterium?

(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Escherichia coli
Q130

According to the 10 percent law of energy flow in an ecosystem, only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. If producers contain 10,000 J of energy, the energy available to the secondary consumers will be:

(a) 10 J
(b) 100 J
(c) 1000 J
(d) 1 J
Q131

The amount of organic matter produced by plants (producers) per unit area over a time period during photosynthesis is called:

(a) Standing crop
(b) Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
(c) Gross Primary Productivity (GPP)
(d) Secondary Productivity
Q132

The interaction in which both interacting species are benefited is called:

(a) Parasitism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Amensalism
(d) Commensalism
Q133

The growth of a population in an environment with limited resources, giving a sigmoid (S-shaped) curve, is described as:

(a) Geometric growth
(b) Linear growth
(c) Exponential growth
(d) Logistic growth
Q134

The species diversity of plants and animals is generally highest in the:

(a) Alpine regions
(b) Tropical regions
(c) Temperate regions
(d) Polar regions
Q135

The conservation of biodiversity within its natural habitat, such as in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, is called:

(a) In-vitro conservation
(b) In-situ conservation
(c) Cryopreservation
(d) Ex-situ conservation

ZOOLOGY

Zoology (Q136 to Q180)

+4 for correct, −1 for incorrect, 0 for unattempted.

Q136

The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognises and cuts the palindromic sequence:

(a) 5′-GAATTC-3′
(b) 5′-AAGCTT-3′
(c) 5′-GGATCC-3′
(d) 5′-CTGCAG-3′
Q137

In the cloning vector pBR322, the gene used as one of the selectable markers is:

(a) Ti gene
(b) ampicillin resistance (ampR)
(c) cry gene
(d) RuBisCO gene
Q138

In the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), the step in which the double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands by heating is called:

(a) Denaturation
(b) Ligation
(c) Annealing
(d) Extension
Q139

In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated on an agarose gel and move towards the:

(a) Either electrode depending on size
(b) Cathode (negative electrode)
(c) Anode (positive electrode)
(d) They do not move
Q140

The enzyme that joins two DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds during recombinant DNA technology is:

(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Restriction endonuclease
(c) Exonuclease
(d) DNA ligase
Q141

The first recombinant human insulin produced by Eli Lilly was named Humulin. It consists of two polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by:

(a) Peptide bonds
(b) Ionic bonds
(c) Disulphide bonds
(d) Hydrogen bonds
Q142

Bt cotton has been made resistant to certain insect pests by introducing genes from the bacterium:

(a) Thermus aquaticus
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Q143

Gene therapy was first used in 1990 to treat a 4-year-old girl suffering from a deficiency of the enzyme:

(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Restriction endonuclease
(c) Carbonic anhydrase
(d) Adenosine deaminase (ADA)
Q144

Enzymes that catalyse the transfer of a group (other than hydrogen) between two substrates belong to the class:

(a) Lyases
(b) Transferases
(c) Hydrolases
(d) Oxidoreductases
Q145

The respiratory quotient (RQ) for the oxidation of carbohydrates such as glucose is:

(a) 0.7
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Q146

A non-protein constituent tightly bound to the enzyme protein that is essential for catalytic activity is the:

(a) Apoenzyme
(b) Prosthetic group
(c) Product
(d) Substrate
Q147

In a protein, the linear sequence of amino acids constitutes its:

(a) Tertiary structure
(b) Primary structure
(c) Quaternary structure
(d) Secondary structure
Q148

The respiratory quotient (RQ) for the oxidation of fats is approximately:

(a) 0.9
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.7
(d) 1.3
Q149

The diagnostic feature of the phylum Echinodermata is the presence of:

(a) Nematocysts
(b) Comb plates
(c) Choanocytes
(d) Water vascular system
Q150

Animals in which the body can be divided into two equal halves by any plane passing through the centre show:

(a) Asymmetry
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) Radial symmetry
(d) Pseudo-symmetry
Q151

Match List I (Animal) with List II (Phylum): A. Pleurobrachia, B. Sycon, C. Aurelia, D. Asterias; I. Porifera, II. Ctenophora, III. Cnidaria, IV. Echinodermata.

(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Q152

Which of the following animals is correctly placed as a true coelomate (eucoelomate)?

(a) Earthworm (Annelida)
(b) Tapeworm (Platyhelminthes)
(c) Roundworm (Aschelminthes)
(d) Hydra (Cnidaria)
Q153

In human spermatogenesis, each secondary spermatocyte is haploid and arises from a primary spermatocyte by:

(a) Amitosis
(b) Second meiotic division
(c) First meiotic (reductional) division
(d) Mitotic division
Q154

The surge of which hormone induces ovulation (rupture of the Graafian follicle) at about the 14th day of the menstrual cycle?

(a) Inhibin
(b) Luteinising hormone (LH)
(c) Progesterone
(d) Oxytocin
Q155

Arrange the correct sequence of events after fertilisation in the human female: 1. Zygote, 2. Morula, 3. Blastocyst, 4. Implantation.

(a) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
(b) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(c) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3
(d) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
Q156

In the assisted reproductive technology GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer), what is transferred into the fallopian tube?

(a) Both ova and sperm (gametes)
(b) Only a zygote
(c) An early embryo (8 blastomeres)
(d) A blastocyst
Q157

Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception in females?

(a) Diaphragm
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Cu-T (IUD)
(d) Saheli pill
Q158

According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, if the frequency of the dominant allele p = 0.7, the frequency of the recessive allele q is:

(a) 0.49
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.09
(d) 0.7
Q159

The forelimbs of a whale, a bat and a human have a similar basic structural plan but perform different functions. Such organs are called:

(a) Homologous organs
(b) Rudimentary organs
(c) Analogous organs
(d) Vestigial organs
Q160

The correct sequence in human evolution is:

(a) Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(b) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo sapiens
(c) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
Q161

In the transport of carbon dioxide, the majority (about 70%) of CO2 is carried in the blood as:

(a) Carbonic acid only
(b) Bicarbonate ions (HCO3⁻)
(c) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(d) Dissolved CO2 in plasma
Q162

In the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, a shift to the right (release of more O2 to tissues) is favoured by:

(a) High pO2
(b) Low pCO2 and high pH
(c) Low temperature
(d) High pCO2 and low pH
Q163

The volume of air that can be inspired forcefully over and above the normal tidal volume is called:

(a) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
(b) Tidal Volume (TV)
(c) Residual Volume (RV)
(d) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
Q164

In the human cardiac cycle, the ‘lub’ (first heart sound) is produced by the closure of the:

(a) Aortic valve only
(b) Pulmonary valve only
(c) Semilunar valves
(d) Atrioventricular (bicuspid and tricuspid) valves
Q165

In a normal ECG, the QRS complex represents:

(a) Repolarisation of the atria
(b) Depolarisation of the ventricles
(c) Repolarisation of the ventricles
(d) Depolarisation of the atria
Q166

The counter-current mechanism that maintains the concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium of the kidney operates between the:

(a) Loop of Henle and vasa recta
(b) Collecting duct and ureter
(c) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus
(d) Proximal and distal convoluted tubules
Q167

The hormone that increases water reabsorption (facultative) by acting on the distal tubule and collecting duct, thereby reducing urine output, is:

(a) ADH (vasopressin)
(b) Renin
(c) Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
(d) Aldosterone
Q168

According to the sliding filament theory, muscle contraction occurs when the:

(a) Thick filaments shorten in length
(b) Thin (actin) filaments slide over the thick (myosin) filaments
(c) Sarcomere length increases
(d) Actin filaments shorten in length
Q169

During muscle contraction, which band of the sarcomere remains constant in length?

(a) A band
(b) H zone
(c) I band
(d) Region between two Z lines
Q170

The joint present between the atlas and axis vertebrae, which allows rotation of the head, is an example of a:

(a) Pivot joint
(b) Ball and socket joint
(c) Gliding joint
(d) Hinge joint
Q171

The type of immunity present at the time of birth that provides non-specific, first-line defence is called:

(a) Active immunity
(b) Acquired (adaptive) immunity
(c) Passive immunity
(d) Innate immunity
Q172

The malarial parasite Plasmodium is transmitted to humans by the bite of:

(a) Female Anopheles mosquito
(b) Female Aedes mosquito
(c) Housefly (Musca)
(d) Female Culex mosquito
Q173

During the rising phase of an action potential, the axonal membrane becomes:

(a) Hyperpolarised due to influx of K⁺ ions
(b) Depolarised due to influx of Na⁺ ions
(c) Depolarised due to efflux of Na⁺ ions
(d) Polarised due to efflux of Ca²⁺ ions
Q174

The part of the human eye that contains the highest concentration of cones and gives the sharpest (most acute) vision is the:

(a) Iris
(b) Fovea (macula lutea)
(c) Blind spot
(d) Ciliary body
Q175

Match List I (Endocrine gland) with List II (Hormone): A. Thyroid, B. Pancreas (β-cells), C. Adrenal medulla, D. Adrenal cortex; I. Insulin, II. Thyroxine, III. Cortisol, IV. Adrenaline.

(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q176

Steroid hormones act on their target cells by:

(a) Being unable to cross the plasma membrane
(b) Acting only on the cell surface via second messengers
(c) Entering the cell and binding to intracellular receptors to regulate gene expression
(d) Binding only to membrane receptors and using cAMP
Q177

The type of epithelial tissue that lines the inner surface of blood vessels and air sacs (alveoli), allowing diffusion, is:

(a) Compound epithelium
(b) Simple columnar epithelium
(c) Stratified squamous epithelium
(d) Simple squamous epithelium
Q178

In a biogas (gobar gas) plant, the methane-producing microbes belong to the group of:

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Mycorrhizal fungi
(c) Methanogens (Archaebacteria)
(d) Lactic acid bacteria
Q179

Match List I (Microbe) with List II (Product/Use): A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B. Penicillium notatum, C. Lactobacillus, D. Trichoderma polysporum; I. Antibiotic (penicillin), II. Bread/ethanol, III. Cyclosporin A, IV. Curd.

(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q180

Down’s syndrome in humans is a chromosomal disorder caused by:

(a) Trisomy of chromosome 18
(b) An extra Y chromosome
(c) Trisomy of chromosome 21
(d) Monosomy of the X chromosome

PHYSICS — Answer Key (Q1–Q45)

Q1. (a) Coefficient of viscosity η has SI unit Pa·s = N·s/m² = (kg·m/s²)(s)/m² = kg·m⁻¹·s⁻¹, so dimensions are [ML⁻¹T⁻¹].
Q2. (b) V ∝ r³, so % error in V = 3 × (% error in r) = 3 × (0.1/2.0 × 100) = 3 × 5% = 15%.
Q3. (d) a = (0−20)/4 = −5 m/s². Distance s = v²/(2a) = (20²)/(2×5) = 400/10 = 40 m.
Q4. (a) H = u²sin²θ/(2g) = (20² × sin²45°)/(2×10) = (400 × 0.5)/20 = 200/20 = 10 m.
Q5. (c) By Newton’s second law, a = F/m = 10/2 = 5 m/s².
Q6. (c) a = (m₁ − m₂)g/(m₁ + m₂) = (3 − 2)×10/(3 + 2) = 10/5 = 2 m/s².
Q7. (b) W = F·d·cosθ = 10 × 5 × cos0° = 50 J.
Q8. (a) For a solid sphere about a diameter, I = (2/5)MR² (standard NCERT result).
Q9. (b) τ = Iα, so α = τ/I = 10/2 = 5 rad/s².
Q10. (c) For a solid sphere, K_rot/K_total = (1/2 Iω²)/((1/2 mv² + 1/2 Iω²)). With I = (2/5)mR² and v = ωR, K_rot = (1/5)mv², K_trans = (1/2)mv², total = (7/10)mv². Ratio = (1/5)/(7/10) = 2/7.
Q11. (a) v_esc = √(8πGρ/3)·R, so for same density v_esc ∝ R. Doubling R doubles v_esc: 2 × 11.2 = 22.4 km/s.
Q12. (a) Y = (F/A)/(ΔL/L). For ΔL = L, the strain = 1, so F = Y·A·(ΔL/L) = Y·A·1 = YA.
Q13. (c) By continuity A₁v₁ = A₂v₂: v₂ = (A₁/A₂)v₁ = (4/2)×1 = 2 m/s.
Q14. (d) Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature. In an isothermal process T is constant, so ΔU = 0.
Q15. (a) η = 1 − T_sink/T_source = 1 − 300/500 = 1 − 0.6 = 0.4 = 40%.
Q16. (d) KE = PE when ½k(A² − x²) = ½kx², giving A² − x² = x², so x² = A²/2, x = A/√2.
Q17. (d) T = 2π√(m/k) = 2π√(2/200) = 2π√(0.01) = 2π(0.1) = 0.628 ≈ 0.63 s.
Q18. (d) For a string fixed at both ends, harmonics are integer multiples of the fundamental: second harmonic = 2 × 100 = 200 Hz.
Q19. (d) Beat frequency = |f₁ − f₂| = |260 − 256| = 4 beats per second.
Q20. (b) E = kq/r² = (9×10⁹ × 8×10⁻⁹)/(2²) = 72/4 = 18 N/C.
Q21. (d) For series: 1/C = 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2, so C = 2/3 μF.
Q22. (c) U = ½CV² = ½ × 5×10⁻⁶ × (200)² = ½ × 5×10⁻⁶ × 40000 = 0.1 J.
Q23. (d) On the equatorial line, every point is equidistant from +q and −q, so the potentials (+kq/r and −kq/r) cancel exactly, giving V = 0. R correctly explains A.
Q24. (b) I = ne/t, so n/t = I/e = 2/(1.6×10⁻¹⁹) = 1.25 × 10¹⁹ electrons per second.
Q25. (a) I = EMF/(R + r) = 2/(3.5 + 0.5) = 2/4 = 0.5 A.
Q26. (c) For n equal resistors in parallel, R_eq = R/n = 6/3 = 2 Ω.
Q27. (d) Resistivity is measured in Ω·m, conductance in siemens, EMF in volts, and power in watts. So A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv.
Q28. (b) F = BIL sinθ = 0.2 × 4 × 0.5 × sin90° = 0.4 N.
Q29. (b) B = μ₀nI = 4π×10⁻⁷ × 1000 × 2 = 8π×10⁻⁴ ≈ 2.5 × 10⁻³ T.
Q30. (a) Diamagnetic substances are weakly repelled by magnetic fields and have small negative magnetic susceptibility (NCERT one-liner).
Q31. (b) EMF = L(dI/dt) = 0.4 × 5 = 2 V.
Q32. (d) At resonance X_L = X_C, so they cancel and impedance Z = R, the pure resistance (minimum impedance).
Q33. (b) V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p, so V_s = 220 × (500/100) = 220 × 5 = 1100 V (step-up transformer).
Q34. (b) In the EM spectrum, radio waves have the longest wavelength (lowest frequency), followed by microwaves, IR, visible, UV, X-rays and gamma rays.
Q35. (b) Using 1/v + 1/u = 1/f with sign convention u = −30, f = −10: 1/v = 1/f − 1/u = −1/10 + 1/30 = −2/30, v = −15 cm. Image distance magnitude = 15 cm.
Q36. (d) n = c/v = (3×10⁸)/(2×10⁸) = 1.5.
Q37. (d) TIR requires light going from denser to rarer medium. In that case the refracted ray bends away from the normal, allowing a critical angle to exist; beyond it TIR occurs. R correctly explains A.
Q38. (a) β = λD/d = (600×10⁻⁹ × 1)/(1×10⁻³) = 600×10⁻⁶ = 0.6 mm.
Q39. (c) λ₀ = hc/φ = 1240/2 = 620 nm.
Q40. (a) de Broglie relation: λ = h/p, so wavelength is inversely proportional to momentum.
Q41. (b) E_n = −13.6/n² eV. For n = 2: E₂ = −13.6/4 = −3.4 eV.
Q42. (d) Number of half-lives = 30/10 = 3. Fraction remaining = (1/2)³ = 1/8.
Q43. (c) The binding energy per nucleon curve peaks near A = 56 (iron). Higher binding energy per nucleon means greater stability, so iron-region nuclei are the most stable. R correctly explains A.
Q44. (d) In forward bias the applied voltage opposes the barrier potential, reducing the depletion region width and allowing current to flow easily (NCERT).
Q45. (c) All four are correct: Zener works in reverse bias as a regulator and is heavily doped; half-wave uses one diode; full-wave ripple frequency (100 Hz for 50 Hz input) is double the half-wave ripple (50 Hz). So 4 statements are correct.

CHEMISTRY — Answer Key (Q46–Q90)

Q46. (b) Δn(gas) = 2 − (1+3) = −2. Therefore Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn = Kc(RT)⁻².
Q47. (b) HCl is a strong acid, fully dissociated, so [H⁺] = 0.001 = 10⁻³ M. pH = −log(10⁻³) = 3.
Q48. (c) The forward reaction is exothermic. By Le Chatelier’s principle, raising temperature favours the endothermic (backward) direction, shifting equilibrium towards NO₂.
Q49. (b) For AB ⇌ A⁺ + B⁻, Ksp = s². So s = √(4×10⁻¹⁰) = 2×10⁻⁵ mol L⁻¹.
Q50. (b) Charge on Fe: 4(+1) + x + 6(−1) = 0 ⇒ x = +2. Six CN⁻ = hexacyanido; anionic complex takes -ate suffix on iron (ferrate). Name: potassium hexacyanidoferrate(II).
Q51. (b) Ni²⁺ is d⁸. In octahedral field with weak ligand H₂O, two unpaired electrons (eg² configuration). μ = √(n(n+2)) = √(2×4) = √8 = 2.83 BM.
Q52. (d) NH₃ is neutral, so Co charge = +3 (to match overall +3). Six NH₃ ligands give coordination number 6.
Q53. (b) [Ni(CO)₄] tetrahedral sp³; [PtCl₄]²⁻ square planar dsp²; [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ octahedral d²sp³; [CoCl₄]²⁻ tetrahedral sp³. Match: A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv.
Q54. (a) Carbocation stability increases with more alkyl groups (+I and hyperconjugation). Tertiary (CH₃)₃C⁺ has the most hyperconjugative and inductive stabilisation, so it is most stable.
Q55. (a) C₄H₁₀ has only two isomers: n-butane and isobutane (2-methylpropane). Answer is 2.
Q56. (c) The –NO₂ group shows resonance between two equivalent structures, delocalising the negative charge equally over both oxygen atoms, making the two N–O bonds identical in length.
Q57. (d) For a first-order reaction, t₁/₂ = ln2/k = 0.693/k, independent of initial concentration.
Q58. (b) t₁/₂ = 0.693/k = 0.693/0.0231 = 30 minutes.
Q59. (a) Order is the sum of exponents in the experimental rate law: 1 + 1 = 2. (Order need not match stoichiometry.)
Q60. (d) In water, alkyl groups increase basicity (+I), aniline is weakest (lone pair delocalised into ring). The observed order is (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > NH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂.
Q61. (a) Primary amines (R–NH₂) react with CHCl₃ and alcoholic KOH to form isocyanides (R–NC) of offensive smell. This is the carbylamine (isocyanide) test, given only by primary amines.
Q62. (b) Diazotisation of aniline is carried out at low temperature (273–278 K, i.e., 0–5 °C) because the diazonium salt is unstable and decomposes at higher temperatures.
Q63. (a) SF₆ has 6 bond pairs and no lone pair on S, giving sp³d² hybridisation and a regular octahedral shape.
Q64. (d) N₂ has 14 electrons. Bond order = (Nb − Na)/2 = (10 − 4)/2 = 3, consistent with its triple bond and diamagnetic nature.
Q65. (b) Water boils higher than H₂S because of extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding (O is small and highly electronegative). Both statements are true and II correctly explains I.
Q66. (b) ΔG° = −RT ln K. A negative ΔG° means ln K > 0, so K > 1, and the forward reaction is spontaneous (product-favoured).
Q67. (c) Enthalpy is a state function. By Hess’s law of constant heat summation, the total enthalpy change depends only on the initial and final states, regardless of the path or number of steps.
Q68. (d) Formation of 1 mole of a compound from its elements in their standard states defines the standard enthalpy of formation. Here CO₂ forms from C and O₂, so ΔH is the enthalpy of formation of CO₂.
Q69. (a) XeF₄ has 4 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs (total 6 electron domains) → sp³d² hybridisation. The two lone pairs occupy axial positions, giving a square planar shape.
Q70. (c) Interhalogen compounds form between two different halogens. ClF₃ (chlorine + fluorine) is an interhalogen; the others contain non-halogen elements or are oxoacids/oxides.
Q71. (d) Acidic strength increases with the oxidation state of chlorine (more O atoms stabilise the conjugate base). Order: HClO₄ (+7) > HClO₃ (+5) > HClO₂ (+3) > HClO (+1).
Q72. (c) Two molecules of acetaldehyde (which have α-hydrogens) undergo aldol addition with dilute base to give 3-hydroxybutanal (the aldol). On heating it dehydrates to crotonaldehyde, but the aldol product itself is 3-hydroxybutanal.
Q73. (c) The Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes lacking α-hydrogen. HCHO has no α-hydrogen and undergoes Cannizzaro; the other three have α-hydrogens.
Q74. (c) Electron-donating alkyl groups (+I) destabilise the carboxylate and decrease acidity. Formic acid (no alkyl) is strongest; propanoic acid (more +I) is weakest. Order: HCOOH > CH₃COOH > CH₃CH₂COOH.
Q75. (a) Two monosaccharides join through an oxygen bridge formed by loss of a water molecule; this C–O–C linkage is the glycosidic bond.
Q76. (c) Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble; B-group and C vitamins are water-soluble. Therefore Vitamin A is fat-soluble.
Q77. (c) E = E° − (0.059/n)log Q. Increasing reactant (cathode) ion concentration lowers Q, which raises E. Thus higher cathodic ion concentration increases the cell EMF.
Q78. (b) Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration: Λ°ₘ = ν₊λ°₊ + ν₋λ°₋, i.e., the sum of the individual limiting molar conductivities of the cations and anions.
Q79. (a) Colligative properties depend on the number of solute particles, not their nature: relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing point and osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the colligative property here.
Q80. (a) NaCl → Na⁺ + Cl⁻ gives 2 particles per formula unit. With complete dissociation, i = 2.
Q81. (c) In the absence of peroxide, HBr adds by Markovnikov’s rule: H goes to the carbon with more H atoms, Br to the more substituted carbon, giving 2-bromopropane as the major product.
Q82. (d) Benzene has three carbon–carbon double bonds (delocalised), contributing 3 π-bonds (6 delocalised π-electrons). The number of π-bonds is 3.
Q83. (d) Carboxylic acids (pKa ~4–5) are more acidic than phenol (pKa ~10), which is more acidic than water (pKa ~15.7). Order: water < phenol < carboxylic acid.
Q84. (d) Williamson synthesis: an alkoxide ion reacts with a primary alkyl halide (SN2) to give an ether. It is a general method for both symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers.
Q85. (b) SN1 rate depends on carbocation stability. Tertiary carbocations are stabilised by hyperconjugation and +I effects, so tertiary halides react fastest by SN1. R correctly explains A.
Q86. (c) Manganese ([Ar]3d⁵4s²) shows oxidation states from +2 to +7, the maximum among 3d elements, because all 3d and 4s electrons can participate in bonding.
Q87. (c) Moles = mass/molar mass = 11/44 = 0.25 mol.
Q88. (b) l = 2 corresponds to a d-subshell, which has 5 orbitals. Each orbital holds 2 electrons, so maximum = 5 × 2 = 10 electrons.
Q89. (c) For K₂Cr₂O₇: 2(+1) + 2(x) + 7(−2) = 0 ⇒ 2 + 2x − 14 = 0 ⇒ 2x = 12 ⇒ x = +6. Chromium is in the +6 oxidation state.
Q90. (a) Across a period, electrons enter the same shell while nuclear charge increases, pulling electrons closer. Hence atomic radius generally decreases across a period.

BOTANY — Answer Key (Q91–Q135)

Q91. (d) A monohybrid cross gives an F2 phenotypic ratio of 3 dominant (tall) : 1 recessive (dwarf). The genotypic ratio is 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt.
Q92. (c) A dihybrid cross (RrYy x RrYy) gives the classic 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in F2, demonstrating independent assortment of the two gene pairs.
Q93. (a) In incomplete dominance, the F1 phenotype (pink) is intermediate between the two parental phenotypes (red and white). The F2 ratio is 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white.
Q94. (a) Blood group AB results from the genotype I^A I^B, where both I^A and I^B alleles are expressed simultaneously (codominance), producing both A and B antigens.
Q95. (a) Down’s syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21 (an extra copy of chromosome 21), giving a total of 45 autosomes plus 2 sex chromosomes (47 chromosomes).
Q96. (d) Turner’s syndrome results from monosomy of the X chromosome (45, X0). Affected females have only one X chromosome and are sterile with underdeveloped ovaries.
Q97. (a) The promoter is located towards the 5′ end (upstream) of the structural gene and provides the binding site for RNA polymerase, defining the template and coding strands.
Q98. (b) Degeneracy of the genetic code means that some amino acids are coded by more than one codon (e.g., leucine has 6 codons). This is a key feature of the genetic code.
Q99. (b) The i gene (regulator/inhibitor gene) codes for the repressor protein, which binds to the operator region and blocks transcription in the absence of lactose.
Q100. (b) Meselson and Stahl grew E. coli in medium containing 15N (heavy nitrogen), then transferred to 14N. Density-gradient centrifugation of DNA proved semiconservative replication.
Q101. (d) Splicing is the process by which introns (non-coding sequences) are removed and exons (coding sequences) are joined together to form mature mRNA in eukaryotes.
Q102. (c) Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotic organisms, i.e., bacteria (including cyanobacteria/blue-green algae), which lack a true membrane-bound nucleus.
Q103. (c) Members of Chlorophyceae (green algae) store food in the form of starch. Phaeophyceae store mannitol/laminarin, and Rhodophyceae store floridean starch.
Q104. (b) In bryophytes, the dominant, photosynthetic, and independent phase is the haploid gametophyte. The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte for nutrition.
Q105. (c) Fungi have a cell wall of chitin (i), are heterotrophic (ii), and store glycogen (iii). They lack chlorophyll, so (iv) is incorrect. Hence three features are correct.
Q106. (d) In Solanaceae, the ovary is bicarpellary, syncarpous, with a swollen placenta and axile placentation, in which ovules are attached to the central axis of a multilocular ovary.
Q107. (c) Gamosepalous refers to a calyx in which the sepals are fused (united). Polysepalous means free sepals; gamopetalous/polypetalous describe fused/free petals respectively.
Q108. (a) Epipetalous condition is when stamens are attached to/fused with the petals, as seen in family Solanaceae (e.g., brinjal, potato).
Q109. (a) In Fabaceae (papilionoideae), the corolla shows vexillary aestivation, where the largest petal (standard/vexillum) overlaps the two lateral wings, which in turn overlap the keel.
Q110. (d) Kranz anatomy is the characteristic leaf anatomy of C4 plants, with large bundle sheath cells (containing chloroplasts) arranged in a wreath-like manner around the vascular bundles.
Q111. (b) In the C4 pathway, phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP), a 3-carbon molecule, is the primary CO2 acceptor in mesophyll cells, catalysed by PEP carboxylase to form OAA.
Q112. (b) A is true: C4 plants are more efficient at CO2 fixation. R is false: C4 plants do possess RuBisCO (in bundle sheath cells); the Calvin cycle still operates there. So A is true, R is false.
Q113. (c) Glycolysis produces 4 ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation but consumes 2 ATP in the preparatory phase, giving a net gain of 2 ATP molecules per glucose.
Q114. (d) The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, where acetyl-CoA is completely oxidized. The electron transport system, however, is located on the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Q115. (a) Auxin produced at the shoot apex suppresses the growth of lateral (axillary) buds, a phenomenon called apical dominance. Removal of the apex promotes lateral bud growth.
Q116. (d) Ethylene is a gaseous PGR that promotes fruit ripening, senescence, abscission of leaves and flowers, and breaking of dormancy in some seeds and buds.
Q117. (d) Vernalisation is the qualitative or quantitative dependence of flowering on exposure to a period of low temperature (cold treatment), as seen in winter varieties of wheat.
Q118. (a) A typical mature angiosperm embryo sac is 7-celled and 8-nucleate: one egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, and one central cell containing two polar nuclei.
Q119. (d) Triple fusion is the fusion of one male gamete with the two polar nuclei (or secondary nucleus), forming the triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). The other male gamete fuses with the egg (syngamy).
Q120. (a) Hydrophily is pollination carried out by water, seen in some aquatic plants like Vallisneria and Hydrilla. Anemophily is by wind, entomophily by insects, and ornithophily by birds.
Q121. (d) During the S (synthesis) phase of interphase, DNA replication takes place, doubling the amount of DNA. The number of chromosomes remains the same, but each now has two chromatids.
Q122. (c) Crossing over, the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I of meiosis.
Q123. (c) In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by the formation of a cell plate (which grows from centre to periphery) that develops into the new cell wall. Animal cells use a cleavage furrow.
Q124. (c) The mitochondrion is called the powerhouse of the cell because it is the site of aerobic respiration, producing energy in the form of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
Q125. (a) A cofactor is a non-protein component required for the catalytic activity of an enzyme. The protein portion is the apoenzyme, and apoenzyme + cofactor together form the holoenzyme.
Q126. (b) Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose units joined by beta-1,4 glycosidic linkages. It is the most abundant structural polysaccharide forming the plant cell wall.
Q127. (b) Restriction endonucleases act as molecular scissors, cutting DNA at specific palindromic recognition sequences. They are key tools in recombinant DNA technology.
Q128. (a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplifies a desired DNA segment using primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) through repeated cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension.
Q129. (c) The Bt toxin gene (cry gene) is obtained from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. The toxin protects Bt cotton against insect pests like the cotton bollworm.
Q130. (b) Producers = 10,000 J. Primary consumers get 10% = 1000 J. Secondary consumers get 10% of 1000 = 100 J. Hence secondary consumers receive 100 J.
Q131. (c) Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. NPP = GPP minus respiration losses (R), i.e., the biomass available to consumers.
Q132. (b) In mutualism (+/+), both interacting species benefit, e.g., lichens (alga + fungus) and mycorrhizae (fungus + plant roots). Commensalism is +/0 and parasitism is +/-.
Q133. (d) Logistic growth occurs when resources are limited; the population reaches a carrying capacity (K), giving a sigmoid (S-shaped) Verhulst-Pearl logistic curve. Exponential growth (J-shaped) assumes unlimited resources.
Q134. (b) According to the latitudinal gradient in diversity, species diversity decreases from the equator towards the poles. Tropical regions (near the equator) harbour the greatest biodiversity.
Q135. (b) In-situ conservation is the protection of species in their natural habitat (e.g., national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves). Ex-situ conservation involves zoos, botanical gardens, and seed banks.

ZOOLOGY — Answer Key (Q136–Q180)

Q136. (a) EcoRI recognises the hexanucleotide palindrome 5′-GAATTC-3′ and cuts between G and A, leaving staggered (sticky) ends with single-stranded AATT overhangs. GGATCC is BamHI, AAGCTT is HindIII.
Q137. (b) pBR322 carries two antibiotic-resistance selectable markers: ampicillin resistance (ampR) and tetracycline resistance (tetR). cry genes are from Bt, Ti is from Agrobacterium, RuBisCO is a plant enzyme.
Q138. (a) PCR has three steps: denaturation (heating ~94-95°C separates strands), annealing (primers bind), and extension (Taq polymerase synthesises new strands). Heating to separate strands is denaturation.
Q139. (c) DNA is negatively charged (phosphate backbone), so under an electric field it migrates towards the positive electrode (anode). Smaller fragments move farther.
Q140. (d) DNA ligase acts as a molecular ‘glue’, joining the sticky ends of vector and insert DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds. Restriction enzymes cut, exonucleases remove nucleotides from ends.
Q141. (c) Mature insulin has A chain (21 aa) and B chain (30 aa) linked together by disulphide (S-S) bridges. In recombinant Humulin, the two chains are produced separately and joined by disulphide bonds.
Q142. (b) Bt cotton carries cry genes from Bacillus thuringiensis, which code for insecticidal Cry proteins (e.g., cryIAc) toxic to bollworms. Agrobacterium is a vector, E. coli a cloning host, Thermus the Taq source.
Q143. (d) The first clinical gene therapy (1990) treated ADA-deficiency SCID, caused by deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. Lymphocytes with a functional ADA gene were introduced.
Q144. (b) Transferases catalyse transfer of a group (e.g., methyl, phosphate, amino) between substrates. Oxidoreductases do redox, hydrolases hydrolyse bonds, lyases add/remove groups forming double bonds.
Q145. (c) For complete oxidation of glucose (C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O), volume of CO2 released equals volume of O2 consumed, so RQ = CO2/O2 = 6/6 = 1.0. Fats ~0.7, proteins ~0.9.
Q146. (b) Cofactors that are tightly (covalently/firmly) bound to the apoenzyme are called prosthetic groups (e.g., haem in peroxidase). The protein part alone is the apoenzyme; together they form the holoenzyme.
Q147. (b) The primary structure of a protein is the exact sequence of amino acids (the positional information). Secondary is helices/sheets, tertiary the 3-D fold, quaternary the assembly of subunits.
Q148. (c) Fats are poor in oxygen, so their complete oxidation consumes more O2 relative to the CO2 produced, giving RQ = CO2/O2 of about 0.7. Carbohydrates give RQ = 1.0 and proteins about 0.9.
Q149. (d) Echinoderms (e.g., starfish, sea urchin) are characterised by a water-vascular system used in locomotion, feeding and respiration. Choanocytes are in Porifera, comb plates in Ctenophora, nematocysts in Cnidaria.
Q150. (c) In radial symmetry (e.g., Cnidarians, echinoderm adults) any plane through the central axis gives two equal halves. Bilateral symmetry gives equal halves by only one (the median) plane.
Q151. (c) Pleurobrachia – Ctenophora (comb jelly); Sycon – Porifera (sponge); Aurelia (jellyfish) – Cnidaria; Asterias (starfish) – Echinodermata. So A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV.
Q152. (a) Annelids like the earthworm are true coelomates (coelom lined by mesoderm). Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates, Platyhelminthes are acoelomate, and Cnidaria are diploblastic without a coelom.
Q153. (c) A diploid primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I (reductional division) to form two haploid secondary spermatocytes. Each then undergoes meiosis II to form spermatids.
Q154. (b) A rapid LH surge (with FSH) at mid-cycle induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the ovum (ovulation). Progesterone dominates the luteal phase after ovulation.
Q155. (b) After fertilisation the zygote undergoes cleavage to form a morula, which develops into a blastocyst; the blastocyst then implants in the uterine wall. Correct order: zygote → morula → blastocyst → implantation.
Q156. (a) In GIFT, gametes (ovum from a donor + sperm) are transferred into the fallopian tube of a female who cannot produce ova. In ZIFT a zygote/early embryo is transferred to the fallopian tube.
Q157. (a) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barrier methods that block sperm entry into the cervix. Cu-T is an intrauterine device, Saheli is an oral pill, and tubectomy is a surgical (sterilisation) method.
Q158. (b) Since p + q = 1, q = 1 − p = 1 − 0.7 = 0.3. (Frequency of homozygous recessive q² would be 0.09.)
Q159. (a) Homologous organs share a common ancestral structural plan but differ in function (anatomical similarity), illustrating divergent evolution. Analogous organs are functionally similar but structurally different (convergent evolution).
Q160. (c) The accepted sequence is Australopithecus (ape-like) → Homo habilis (first tool maker) → Homo erectus (large brain) → Homo sapiens. Homo habilis precedes Homo erectus.
Q161. (b) About 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate ions, ~20-23% as carbamino-haemoglobin, and ~7% dissolved in plasma. Carbonic anhydrase in RBCs aids bicarbonate formation.
Q162. (d) In tissues, high pCO2, high H⁺ (low pH), high temperature and high 2,3-BPG shift the curve to the right (Bohr effect), favouring dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin and O2 delivery.
Q163. (d) IRV (about 2500-3000 mL) is the additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forceful inspiration above the normal tidal inspiration. ERV is the extra volume expired forcefully.
Q164. (d) The first heart sound ‘lub’ is associated with closure of the atrioventricular (tricuspid and bicuspid) valves at the start of ventricular systole. The ‘dub’ is closure of the semilunar valves.
Q165. (b) The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates ventricular contraction. The P wave is atrial depolarisation and the T wave is ventricular repolarisation.
Q166. (a) The Henle’s loop and vasa recta together act as a counter-current system, maintaining an increasing osmolarity gradient (from cortex ~300 to inner medulla ~1200 mOsmol/L) that helps concentrate urine.
Q167. (a) ADH (antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin) promotes water reabsorption from the distal parts of the tubule, reducing urine volume. Its deficiency causes diabetes insipidus.
Q168. (b) In the sliding filament theory, the thin actin filaments slide inward over the stationary thick myosin filaments, shortening the sarcomere. The filaments themselves do not change length.
Q169. (a) The A band (length of the thick myosin filaments) stays constant during contraction, while the I band and H zone shorten as actin slides inward. The distance between Z lines (sarcomere) decreases.
Q170. (a) The joint between the atlas and axis (first two cervical vertebrae) is a pivot joint, allowing rotational movement of the head. Hinge joints (knee/elbow) allow movement in one plane only.
Q171. (d) Innate immunity is non-specific and present from birth, comprising physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine barriers. Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and develops after exposure.
Q172. (a) Plasmodium (causing malaria) is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. Culex transmits filariasis and Aedes transmits dengue/chikungunya.
Q173. (b) On stimulation, voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open and Na⁺ rushes into the axon, reversing the membrane potential (inside becomes positive) — this depolarisation is the rising phase of the action potential.
Q174. (b) The fovea centralis (in the macula lutea) is densely packed with cones and is the point of highest visual acuity. The blind spot lacks photoreceptors as the optic nerve exits there.
Q175. (a) Thyroid – thyroxine (II); pancreatic β-cells – insulin (I); adrenal medulla – adrenaline/epinephrine (IV); adrenal cortex – cortisol (III). So A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
Q176. (c) Being lipid-soluble, steroid hormones diffuse through the plasma membrane, bind intracellular (cytoplasmic/nuclear) receptors, and the hormone-receptor complex regulates gene (DNA) transcription. Protein hormones use membrane receptors and second messengers.
Q177. (d) Simple squamous epithelium consists of a single layer of flat cells and lines blood vessels (endothelium) and alveoli, where it permits diffusion/transport across thin surfaces.
Q178. (c) Methanogens such as Methanobacterium are anaerobic archaebacteria found in cattle dung and sludge; they produce methane (biogas) from the dung slurry. Cyanobacteria are biofertilisers, lactic acid bacteria curdle milk.
Q179. (a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – bread/ethanol (II); Penicillium notatum – penicillin antibiotic (I); Lactobacillus – curd (IV); Trichoderma polysporum – cyclosporin A immunosuppressant (III). So A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
Q180. (c) Down’s syndrome results from trisomy of chromosome 21 (an extra copy, total 47 chromosomes) due to non-disjunction. Turner’s is XO (monosomy X) and Klinefelter’s is XXY.
Done? See where you actually stand.
🎯 Now get your predicted re-NEET score

Take the free 1-hour diagnostic and get a predicted NEET score that climbs as you practise. Gamified questions, instant explanations and daily revision for the re-exam — no cost, no install.

Get my predicted score →
100% free · works in your browser · built for the 21 June re-exam

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top