The dimensional formula for X = (electric field x magnetic field)/permeability of free space is the same as that of:

A quantity Z = A^2 B / sqrt(C). If percentage errors in A, B and C are 2%, 1% and 4%, the maximum percentage error in Z is:

A particle moves along the x-axis with velocity v = 8 – 2t (m/s). The distance travelled in the first 6 seconds is:

Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed at 30 and 60 degrees. The ratio of their maximum heights is:

Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 2 kg are connected by a light string over a frictionless pulley; the 3 kg block hangs and the 2 kg block rests on a frictionless table. The acceleration is (g = 10 m/s^2):

A car negotiates a frictionless banked curve of radius 50 m banked at angle theta with tan(theta) = 0.5. The maximum safe speed is (g = 10 m/s^2):

A 2 kg block is pushed against a spring of force constant 500 N/m, compressing it 0.2 m. Released on a frictionless surface, its speed as it leaves the spring is:

A solid sphere of mass M, radius R rolls without slipping down an incline of height h. Its centre-of-mass speed at the bottom is:

A uniform rod of mass M, length L rotates about an axis through one end perpendicular to its length. Its moment of inertia is:

A dancer spins at angular velocity w. Pulling her arms in reduces her moment of inertia to one-third. Her new angular velocity and the ratio of new to old rotational KE are:

A satellite orbits at radius 2R (R = Earth’s radius). If escape velocity from Earth’s surface is 11.2 km/s, its orbital velocity is about:

Water flows through a horizontal pipe whose area reduces from 10 cm^2 to 5 cm^2. If the speed in the wider section is 2 m/s, the speed in the narrower section is:

A capillary tube of radius 0.2 mm is dipped in water (T = 0.072 N/m, density 1000 kg/m^3, contact angle 0). The rise of water is about (g = 10 m/s^2):

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes isothermal expansion. During this process:

A Carnot engine has efficiency 40% with the sink at 300 K. To raise the efficiency to 50% keeping the sink fixed, the source temperature must increase by:

A particle in SHM of amplitude A is at the displacement where its kinetic energy equals its potential energy. That displacement is:

A spring-mass system has time period T. If the mass and the spring constant are both doubled, the new time period is:

A string fixed at both ends vibrates in its third harmonic. With length 1.5 m and wave speed 120 m/s, the frequency is:

Two tuning forks give 5 beats/s. One is 256 Hz. On loading the other with wax, the beats fall to 3/s. The original frequency of the second fork is:

An electric dipole of moment p in a uniform field E is rotated from theta = 0 to theta = 90 degrees. The work done is:

A hollow conducting sphere of radius R carries charge Q. The potential at distance R/2 from the centre is:

Three capacitors of 2 uF, 3 uF and 6 uF are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is:

Match Column I (quantity) with Column II (SI unit): A. Electric flux – i. weber; B. Magnetic flux – ii. volt-metre; C. Capacitance – iii. coulomb/volt; D. Inductance – iv. volt-second/ampere.

In the given circuit, a battery of EMF 12 V and internal resistance 1 ohm drives an external resistance of 5 ohm. The terminal voltage is:

In a meter bridge, the balance point is at 25 cm when the known resistance in the right gap is 9 ohm. The unknown resistance in the left gap is:

How many of these statements about a metallic conductor at constant temperature are correct? (i) Drift velocity is proportional to applied field. (ii) Resistance is independent of length. (iii) Current density is proportional to field. (iv) Mobility depends on applied field.

In the given circuit, 4 ohm and 6 ohm resistors in parallel are in series with a 2.6 ohm resistor across a 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance. The current drawn is:

A proton enters a 0.2 T field at 4 x 10^6 m/s perpendicular to it. The radius of its path is (m = 1.6 x 10^-27 kg, q = 1.6 x 10^-19 C):

A long solenoid with 500 turns per metre carries 4 A. The field inside is (mu0 = 4pi x 10^-7):

Assertion (A): Ferromagnetic materials lose ferromagnetism above the Curie temperature. Reason (R): Above the Curie temperature, thermal agitation destroys the alignment of magnetic domains.

A coil of inductance 0.5 H carries a current rising uniformly from 0 to 4 A in 0.2 s. The induced EMF is:

An ideal step-down transformer has 1000 primary and 100 secondary turns. The secondary delivers 5 A. The primary current is:

Statement I: In an LCR series AC circuit, the current lags the voltage when the circuit is predominantly inductive. Statement II: At resonance, the current in a series LCR circuit is minimum.

In a plane EM wave in vacuum the peak electric field is 30 V/m. The peak magnetic field is (c = 3 x 10^8 m/s):

A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms a real image 30 cm from the mirror. The object distance is:

A thin equiconvex lens has radii 20 cm each and refractive index 1.5. Its focal length in air is:

A ray passes through an equilateral prism (A = 60 degrees) at minimum deviation 30 degrees. The refractive index is:

In Young’s double slit experiment the fringe width is 0.4 mm. If the apparatus is immersed in water (n = 4/3), the new fringe width is:

Light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a metal of work function 2 eV. The maximum KE of the photoelectrons is (hc = 1240 eV.nm):

An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the electron to that of the proton is:

The energy of an electron in the second excited state (n = 3) of hydrogen is:

A radioactive sample has a half-life of 10 days. The fraction remaining after 30 days is:

Binding energy of a deuteron is 2.2 MeV and of helium-4 is 28 MeV. When two deuterons fuse to form helium, the energy released is:

In a p-n junction diode under forward bias:

In a full-wave rectifier with input frequency 50 Hz, the fundamental ripple frequency at the output is:

For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), the value of Kp is related to Kc by which expression at temperature T?

A 0.01 M solution of a weak monobasic acid is 5% ionised at 25°C. The dissociation constant (Ka) of the acid is approximately:

For the equilibrium CaCO₃(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO₂(g), which change will shift the equilibrium to the right (more decomposition)?

The Ksp of Mg(OH)₂ is 1.0 × 10⁻¹¹. The molar solubility of Mg(OH)₂ in pure water is approximately:

The IUPAC name of the complex K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is:

The spin-only magnetic moment of the complex ion [CoF₆]³⁻ (Co³⁺, d⁶, weak-field ligand) is approximately:

Match List I (complex) with List II (number of unpaired electrons) and choose the correct option: List I: (A) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ (B) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ (C) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (D) [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ List II: (i) 0 (ii) 2 (iii) 4

Assertion (A): [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ is square planar and shows colour. Reason (R): Cu²⁺ is a d⁹ ion and undergoes dsp² hybridisation, with d-d transitions giving colour.

Among CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺ (n-propyl), (CH₃)₂CH⁺ (isopropyl) and CH₂=CH–CH₂⁺ (allyl), the correct order of stability is:

The number of structural (chain + positional) isomers possible for the molecular formula C₅H₁₂ is:

Which of the following is the strongest acid?

For a first-order reaction, 75% of the reactant is consumed in 60 minutes. The half-life of the reaction is:

The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 2.303 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹. The time required for the concentration to fall to 1/10 of its initial value is:

The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of the Arrhenius plot. If ln k is plotted against 1/T, the slope equals:

The correct decreasing order of basicity in aqueous solution is:

In the carbylamine test, which class of amine gives a foul-smelling isocyanide?

Aniline is treated with NaNO₂/HCl at 273–278 K, and the product is then warmed with water. The final product is:

According to MO theory, the bond order and magnetic nature of the N₂ molecule are:

The shape and hybridisation of the IF₇ molecule (central I, 7 bond pairs, no lone pair) are:

Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonding is/are correct? (I) H₂O has a higher boiling point than H₂S due to intermolecular H-bonding. (II) o-nitrophenol has a higher boiling point than p-nitrophenol. (III) HF is a weaker acid than HCl partly due to strong H-bonding.

For a reaction at 300 K, ΔH = +30 kJ/mol and ΔS = +100 J/K/mol. The value of ΔG (in kJ/mol) is:

Using Hess’s law: given enthalpies of formation of CO₂(g) = −393 kJ/mol and CO(g) = −110 kJ/mol, the enthalpy of the reaction CO(g) + ½O₂(g) → CO₂(g) is:

For an ideal gas, which of the following is true for an adiabatic process?

Which of the following correctly describes the structure of white phosphorus (P₄)?

Match List I (interhalogen/species) with List II (shape) and choose the correct option: List I: (A) ClF₃ (B) BrF₅ (C) ICl (D) IF₇ List II: (i) Linear (ii) Bent T-shape (iii) Square pyramidal (iv) Pentagonal bipyramidal

Which of the following statements about Group 15 hydrides is correct?

In the aldol condensation, which of the following aldehydes cannot undergo self-aldol condensation?

Match List I (reagent/reaction) with List II (transformation) and choose the correct option: List I: (A) Clemmensen reduction (B) Wolff–Kishner reduction (C) Tollens’ reagent (D) Fehling’s solution List II: (i) >C=O → >CH₂ using Zn-Hg/HCl (ii) >C=O → >CH₂ using NH₂NH₂/KOH (iii) oxidises aldehyde, silver mirror (iv) oxidises aliphatic aldehyde, red ppt

The correct order of acidic strength among the following carboxylic acids is: HCOOH, CH₃COOH, C₆H₅COOH, ClCH₂COOH

Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

Which of the following statements about proteins is/are correct? (I) The secondary structure (α-helix, β-sheet) is stabilised by hydrogen bonds. (II) The peptide bond is an amide linkage (–CO–NH–). (III) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of a protein.

For the cell reaction with E°cell = +0.46 V at 298 K and n = 2, the equilibrium constant (use 2.303RT/F = 0.059) is of the order:

The limiting molar conductivity (Λ°ₘ) of CH₃COOH can be obtained from Kohlrausch’s law using:

An aqueous solution contains a non-volatile solute. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is 0.2. If the solution contains 1 mole of solute, the number of moles of solvent is:

0.5 m aqueous solution of NaCl shows a van’t Hoff factor i = 1.9. The percentage dissociation of NaCl is:

On reductive ozonolysis of an alkene, the products are acetone and acetaldehyde. The alkene is:

When propene reacts with HBr in the presence of benzoyl peroxide, the major product is:

The acidic character of the following compounds increases in the order: phenol, p-nitrophenol, p-cresol (p-methylphenol)

In the Williamson synthesis, the best combination to prepare tert-butyl methyl ether without significant elimination is:

An optically active 2-bromobutane undergoes hydrolysis. Under purely SN1 conditions the product is largely racemised, whereas under SN2 conditions the product shows inversion of configuration. The reason racemisation accompanies the SN1 pathway is:

Assertion (A): Lanthanoid contraction causes the atomic radii of Zr and Hf to be nearly the same. Reason (R): The poor shielding of 4f electrons leads to a steady decrease in size across the lanthanoid series.

A sample of pure iron weighing 11.2 g reacts completely with excess dilute H₂SO₄ to form FeSO₄ and H₂. What is the volume of H₂ liberated at STP and the mass of FeSO₄ formed? (Fe = 56, S = 32, O = 16)

Consider the orbitals 3p, 3d and 4s. The number of radial nodes in each, respectively, is:

In the balanced reaction MnO₄⁻ + C₂O₄²⁻ + H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + CO₂ + H₂O (acidic medium), the number of moles of C₂O₄²⁻ oxidised per mole of MnO₄⁻ is:

Arrange the following species in the correct order of increasing atomic/ionic radius: Na⁺, Mg²⁺, F⁻, O²⁻ (all isoelectronic with Ne).

In a cross between two pea plants, the F1 generation was self-pollinated to give an F2 of 480 plants. If the trait shows a 9:3:3:1 dihybrid ratio, approximately how many plants would be expected to show both recessive characters?

A woman with blood group AB marries a man with blood group O. What are the possible blood groups of their children?

Assertion (A): In Mirabilis jalapa, a cross between red and white flowered plants gives pink F1 flowers. Reason (R): This is a case of incomplete dominance in which the heterozygote shows an intermediate phenotype because neither allele can completely mask the other.

Match Column I (Chromosomal disorder) with Column II (Chromosomal constitution): Column I: A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Klinefelter syndrome D. Normal human female Column II: i. 44 + XXY ii. Trisomy of 21 iii. 44 + XX iv. 44 + XO

A carrier woman for a sex-linked recessive condition marries a normal man. How many of the following statements are correct? 1. Half of the sons will be affected. 2. All daughters will be either carrier or normal. 3. None of the daughters will be affected. 4. Half of the daughters will be carriers.

Two genes A and B are located 20 map units apart on the same chromosome. In a test cross of an AaBb (cis-configuration) individual, what percentage of the offspring are expected to be recombinant?

A transcription unit in DNA has three regions. In which direction does RNA polymerase synthesise RNA, and which strand serves as the template?

In the lac operon of E. coli, how many of the following are correct? 1. The repressor is synthesised by the i gene. 2. Lactose acts as an inducer. 3. In the presence of inducer, the repressor cannot bind the operator. 4. The z gene codes for beta-galactosidase.

Meselson and Stahl grew E. coli in 15N medium and then shifted to 14N medium. After two generations in 14N medium, what is the ratio of hybrid (15N/14N) to light (14N/14N) DNA molecules?

Statement I: The genetic code is degenerate, meaning some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Statement II: AUG codes for methionine and also acts as the initiator codon.

During eukaryotic RNA processing, which sequence correctly describes the maturation of hnRNA into mRNA?

Match Column I (Group) with Column II (Characteristic): Column I: A. Dinoflagellates B. Euglenoids C. Slime moulds D. Diatoms Column II: i. Cell wall of indestructible silica ii. Cellulose plates in wall; cause red tides iii. Pellicle, no cell wall iv. Saprophytic with aggregating plasmodium

How many of the following groups store their reserve food as a starch-type carbohydrate (true starch or floridean starch)? 1. Chlorophyceae 2. Phaeophyceae 3. Rhodophyceae 4. Cyanobacteria

In the life cycle of a moss (bryophyte), which statement about alternation of generations is correct?

Assertion (A): Gymnosperms are called naked-seeded plants. Reason (R): Their ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall, so the seeds remain exposed.

A flower has the following features: (5) fused sepals, 5 petals, 5 epipetalous stamens, and a bicarpellary syncarpous superior ovary with axile placentation and an obliquely placed septum. To which family does it belong?

Match Column I (Family) with Column II (Characteristic feature): Column I: A. Fabaceae (aestivation) B. Solanaceae C. Liliaceae D. Fabaceae (stamens) Column II: i. Vexillary (papilionaceous) aestivation ii. Tepals (3+3), axile placentation iii. Diadelphous stamens (9)+1 iv. Berry fruit, oblique ovary

How many of the following terms are correctly defined? 1. Gamosepalous – sepals united 2. Epipetalous – stamens attached to petals 3. Polypetalous – petals free 4. Gamopetalous – petals free

In a flower, the aestivation in which margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction is called:

In C4 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor and the first stable product formed in the mesophyll cells are respectively:

Assertion (A): Photorespiration in C3 plants does not produce ATP or NADPH. Reason (R): In photorespiration, RuBisCO acts as an oxygenase and no sugar is synthesised, so there is no energy yield.

In the Calvin cycle, when 3 molecules of CO2 are fixed, how many molecules of RuBP are regenerated and how many ATP are used specifically in the regeneration step?

In aerobic respiration, the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose through glycolysis, the link reaction and the Krebs cycle releases how many molecules of CO2, and at which stages?

Statement I: The respiratory quotient (RQ) of fats is less than 1. Statement II: During fat oxidation, more oxygen is consumed relative to the CO2 released.

Match Column I (Plant growth regulator) with Column II (Effect): Column I: A. Gibberellin B. Abscisic acid C. Ethylene D. Cytokinin Column II: i. Promotes fruit ripening and senescence ii. Bolting in rosette plants iii. Stress hormone, stomatal closure iv. Cell division, delays senescence

Assertion (A): A short-day plant flowers when the night length exceeds a critical period. Reason (R): The duration of the dark period is the decisive factor in photoperiodic induction of flowering.

How many of the following effects are correctly attributed to auxins? 1. Promotion of apical dominance. 2. Induction of parthenocarpy. 3. Promotion of rooting in stem cuttings. 4. Breaking of seed dormancy in cereals.

In a mature angiosperm embryo sac, the central cell, the two synergids, and the three antipodal cells contain respectively how many nuclei (before fertilisation)?

During double fertilisation in angiosperms, the two fusion events produce respectively:

How many of the following statements about pollination are correct? 1. Geitonogamy involves transfer of pollen between two flowers of the same plant. 2. Xenogamy brings genetically different pollen to the stigma. 3. Autogamy in chasmogamous flowers requires synchrony of anther dehiscence and stigma receptivity. 4. Cleistogamous flowers are always cross-pollinated.

Statement I: In meiosis, crossing over occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I. Statement II: Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs during zygotene.

How many of the following are correct differences between mitosis and meiosis? 1. Mitosis produces two diploid cells; meiosis produces four haploid cells. 2. Crossing over occurs in meiosis I but not in mitosis. 3. Homologous chromosomes pair only in meiosis. 4. DNA replicates twice in meiosis (once before each division).

Assertion (A): Cytokinesis in plant cells occurs by cell-plate formation. Reason (R): The rigid cell wall of plant cells prevents division by a cleavage furrow.

Match Column I (Cell organelle) with Column II (Function): Column I: A. Rough ER B. Golgi apparatus C. Lysosome D. Mitochondria Column II: i. Intracellular digestion ii. Protein synthesis (membrane-bound ribosomes) iii. Site of oxidative phosphorylation iv. Packaging and modification of proteins

For an enzyme-catalysed reaction, if the Km of an enzyme is low, what does it indicate about the enzyme’s affinity for its substrate?

How many of the following biomolecules are polysaccharides? 1. Cellulose 2. Glycogen 3. Inulin 4. Insulin

In a PCR cycle, the three steps occur in the correct order as:

Match Column I (Biotech tool/application) with Column II (Role/feature): Column I: A. Ti plasmid B. RNA interference C. Bt cotton D. Gel electrophoresis Column II: i. Separation of DNA fragments by size ii. Vector from Agrobacterium for plant transformation iii. Silencing of nematode mRNA iv. Cry protein-mediated insect resistance

How many of the following statements about restriction endonucleases are correct? 1. They recognise specific palindromic sequences. 2. They cut DNA at specific sites producing fragments. 3. They are also called ‘molecular scissors’. 4. They join DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.

In an ecological pyramid of energy, if the producers contain 20,000 kJ of energy, approximately how much energy is available at the third trophic level (secondary consumers)?

Statement I: Gross primary productivity (GPP) minus respiration equals net primary productivity (NPP). Statement II: NPP is the biomass available for consumption by heterotrophs.

Assertion (A): A logistic growth curve is sigmoid (S-shaped). Reason (R): Resources become limiting as the population approaches the carrying capacity (K).

Match Column I (Population interaction) with Column II (Effect on the two species): Column I: A. Mutualism B. Competition C. Predation D. Commensalism Column II: i. +/0 ii. +/+ iii. -/- iv. +/-

According to the species-area relationship on a log-log scale (log S = log C + Z log A), the slope Z (regression coefficient) for most taxa over relatively small areas lies in the range:

How many of the following are examples of in-situ conservation? 1. National parks 2. Biosphere reserves 3. Zoological parks 4. Sacred groves

EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease that recognises a specific palindromic sequence. At which position does it cleave the DNA backbone?

In the cloning vector pBR322, the recognition site for the restriction enzyme PstI lies within the ampicillin-resistance gene. If a foreign DNA fragment is inserted at this PstI site, the resulting recombinant bacteria will be:

Arrange the three steps of one PCR cycle in the correct order: (i) Annealing of primers (ii) Denaturation (iii) Extension by Taq polymerase.

In agarose gel electrophoresis of DNA, the separated fragments are visualised by staining with ethidium bromide and exposing to:

How many of the following statements regarding the Ti plasmid and bioreactors are CORRECT? (i) The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be used as a vector to deliver genes into plant cells. (ii) A stirred-tank bioreactor allows mixing and oxygen availability throughout the culture. (iii) Bacteriophages and plasmids both serve as cloning vectors because they can replicate independently within bacterial cells. (iv) Downstream processing includes separation, purification and quality control of the product.

Genetically engineered human insulin (Humulin) is produced by inserting genes for the A and B polypeptide chains separately into E. coli. After production, the mature insulin is assembled by:

Bt cotton expresses a cry gene whose protein toxin is initially produced as an inactive protoxin. This protoxin becomes an active toxin in the insect gut because:

In the strategy to develop nematode-resistant tobacco against Meloidogyne incognita, host cells were transformed using Agrobacterium vectors to produce both sense and antisense RNA. This silenced the parasite’s gene by:

How many of the following are TRUE about enzyme classification and action? (i) Oxidoreductases catalyse oxidation-reduction reactions between two substrates. (ii) Ligases catalyse the joining of two compounds with hydrolysis of ATP. (iii) Lyases catalyse transfer of a group from one substrate to another. (iv) An enzyme lowers the activation energy of a reaction.

A cofactor that is tightly and permanently bound to the apoenzyme by covalent bonds is called a:

During the catabolism of a pure fat substrate, the respiratory quotient (RQ = CO2 released / O2 consumed) is approximately:

Which of the following correctly describes the secondary structure of a protein?

Match List I (Biomolecule type) with List II (Example) and select the correct option: List I A. Nucleotide B. Amino acid C. Secondary metabolite D. Reducing sugar List II I. Glucose II. Adenylic acid III. Alkaloid (morphine) IV. Tyrosine

How many of the following animals possess a true coelom (eucoelomate condition)? Ascaris, Earthworm (Pheretima), Planaria, Cockroach, Hydra, Starfish

Match List I (Phylum) with List II (Diagnostic feature) and choose the correct option: List I A. Porifera B. Ctenophora C. Aschelminthes D. Echinodermata List II I. Water vascular system II. Canal system & choanocytes III. Comb plates for locomotion IV. Complete digestive tract, pseudocoelom

Which of the following is the correct combination of characters for Phylum Chordata that distinguishes it from non-chordates?

Statement I: All members of Phylum Echinodermata are exclusively marine and show radial symmetry in the adult. Statement II: Echinoderm larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. In light of the above, choose the correct option.

During human spermatogenesis, one primary spermatocyte ultimately gives rise to four sperms, whereas in oogenesis one primary oocyte gives rise to only one functional ovum. The difference is mainly because in oogenesis:

Which hormone surge is directly responsible for triggering ovulation in the human menstrual cycle?

Arrange the following events of early human development in the correct chronological order: (i) Implantation (ii) Fertilisation in ampulla (iii) Formation of blastocyst (iv) Cleavage to morula

Which of the following contraceptive methods works primarily as a copper-releasing intra-uterine device that suppresses sperm motility and makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation?

Match List I (Assisted Reproductive Technology) with List II (Procedure) and select the correct answer: List I A. IVF B. ZIFT C. GIFT D. ICSI List II I. Transfer of ovum from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female II. Injection of a single sperm directly into the ovum III. Fertilisation outside the body, then early embryo transferred to fallopian tube IV. Embryo formed in lab and transferred (test-tube baby programme)

In a large randomly-mating population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele (a) is 0.2. What percentage of the population is expected to be heterozygous (Aa)?

The forelimbs of a whale, a bat and a human have a similar basic skeletal plan but perform different functions. This is an example of:

Arrange the following in the correct sequence of human evolution from earliest to most recent: (i) Homo erectus (ii) Australopithecus (iii) Homo habilis (iv) Homo sapiens

At the tissue level, the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, favouring unloading of O2. How many of the following factors cause this rightward shift? (i) Increase in pCO2 (ii) Decrease in pH (more H+) (iii) Rise in temperature (iv) Decrease in pO2

The largest fraction of carbon dioxide is transported in human blood in the form of:

If a person’s Tidal Volume is 500 mL, Inspiratory Reserve Volume is 3000 mL and Expiratory Reserve Volume is 1100 mL, what is the Vital Capacity (assuming these are the relevant volumes)?

In the cardiac cycle, the QRS complex of an ECG represents:

Assertion (A): A person with AB blood group is called a universal recipient. Reason (R): The plasma of an AB individual has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

If the daily glomerular filtrate is 180 litres and the daily urine output is 1.8 litres, what percentage of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the nephrons?

Assertion (A): The counter-current mechanism in the kidney helps to maintain a high osmolarity gradient (interstitial concentration increasing towards the inner medulla). Reason (R): The loop of Henle and vasa recta together act as a counter-current system.

According to the sliding filament theory, during muscle contraction which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the sarcomere?

In a relaxed sarcomere the distance from one Z-line to the next is 3.2 μm. During contraction each half-sarcomere shortens by 0.4 μm. What is the length of the contracted sarcomere?

Match List I (Joint) with List II (Type/Location) and choose the correct option: List I A. Between atlas and axis B. Between carpals C. Knee joint D. Between skull bones List II I. Hinge joint II. Pivot joint III. Fibrous (immovable) joint IV. Gliding joint

Assertion (A): In acquired immunity, the secondary immune response is faster and stronger than the primary response. Reason (R): Memory B and T cells generated during the first encounter recognise the pathogen on re-exposure.

The malarial parasite Plasmodium enters the human body as which infective stage, released from the salivary glands of the female Anopheles mosquito?

During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the rising phase (depolarisation) of the action potential is mainly due to:

In the human eye, the region of the retina where the photoreceptors converge to leave as the optic nerve, and which is devoid of rods and cones, is the:

Match List I (Endocrine gland/hormone) with List II (Disorder due to abnormal secretion) and choose the correct option: List I A. Thyroid (deficiency in adult) B. Insulin (deficiency) C. Growth hormone (excess in adult) D. Parathyroid (deficiency) List II I. Diabetes mellitus II. Acromegaly III. Myxoedema IV. Tetany

Steroid hormones differ from protein hormones in their mechanism of action because steroid hormones:

Which of the following animal tissues has cells that are tall, with the nucleus at the base, and is found lining the inner surface of the stomach and intestine where it performs secretion and absorption?

Match List I (Microbe) with List II (Product/Role) and choose the correct option: List I A. Lactobacillus B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Aspergillus niger D. Trichoderma polysporum List II I. Bread/ethanol production II. Cyclosporin A (immunosuppressant) III. Curd formation IV. Citric acid

In sewage treatment, the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of the effluent indicates:

Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. The biochemical defect is the lack of an enzyme that converts: