Assertion (A): A current-carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.
Reason (R): The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid is uniform and along its axis.

A horizontal conducting rod of length 1 m moves with velocity 5 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.4 T. The induced EMF across the rod is:

Match Column I (AC quantity) with Column II (relation):
A. Capacitive reactance — i. ωL
B. Inductive reactance — ii. 1/(ωC)
C. Resonant frequency — iii. 1/(2π√LC)
D. Quality factor — iv. (1/R)√(L/C)

Assertion (A): The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic substance is small and opposite to the applied field.
Reason (R): Diamagnetic substances have all electrons paired with no net atomic magnetic moment.

The mutual inductance between two coils is 0.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 4 A in 0.1 s, the EMF induced in the other coil is:

Assertion (A): Electric field lines never intersect each other.
Reason (R): Two field lines crossing would imply two directions of field at the point, which is impossible.

A point charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of side a. The flux through one face is:

Three capacitors of 6 μF each are connected in parallel and the combination is connected in series with another 6 μF capacitor. The equivalent capacitance is:

Match Column I (capacitor configuration) with Column II (capacitance change factor with dielectric K filling):
A. K fills entire space — i. K
B. K fills half (parallel to plates, half thickness) — ii. 2K/(K+1)
C. K fills half (perpendicular, half area) — iii. (K+1)/2
D. K fills full and area doubled — iv. 2K

Assertion (A): The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with rise in temperature.
Reason (R): The number density of charge carriers in a semiconductor increases with temperature.

Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on the conservation of:

In a meter bridge, the null point is obtained at 40 cm with an unknown resistance X in the left gap and a 6 Ω resistance in the right gap. The value of X is:

Match Column I (cell network) with Column II (effective EMF):
A. n cells of EMF E in series — i. E
B. n cells of EMF E in parallel (same EMF) — ii. nE
C. Two cells of EMFs E₁, E₂ in series (same polarity) — iii. E₁ + E₂
D. Two cells of EMFs E₁, E₂ in parallel — iv. (E₁r₂ + E₂r₁)/(r₁ + r₂)

Assertion (A): A convex lens behaves as a diverging lens when immersed in a medium of refractive index greater than its own.
Reason (R): The focal length depends on the relative refractive index of the lens with respect to the surrounding medium.

Critical angle for a glass-air interface is 42°. The refractive index of glass is approximately:

In Young’s double-slit experiment, if monochromatic light is replaced by white light, the central fringe is:

Match Column I (phenomenon) with Column II (explanation):
A. Polarisation — i. Transverse nature of light
B. Interference — ii. Superposition principle
C. Diffraction — iii. Bending around obstacles
D. Doppler effect (light) — iv. Relative motion of source and observer

Assertion (A): The de Broglie wavelength of a moving body decreases as its kinetic energy increases.
Reason (R): de Broglie wavelength is given by λ = h/√(2mKE).

The threshold frequency of a metal is 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz. The work function of the metal is approximately:

In the nuclear reaction ²₁H + ³₁H → ⁴₂He + X, the particle X is:

Match Column I (Bohr orbit quantity in hydrogen) with Column II (n-dependence):
A. Radius — i. n²
B. Speed — ii. 1/n
C. Total energy — iii. 1/n²
D. Frequency of revolution — iv. 1/n³

Two radioactive nuclei P and Q have decay constants λ and 2λ. Initially they have equal numbers. At time t = 1/λ, the ratio N_P : N_Q is:

Assertion (A): A body placed on a smooth inclined plane will slide down with acceleration g sinθ.
Reason (R): The normal reaction does no work as it is perpendicular to motion.

A body of mass 5 kg is acted on by a force F = 20î − 15ĵ N. The magnitude of acceleration is:

A particle moving with velocity v collides perfectly inelastically with an identical stationary particle. The fraction of initial KE lost is:

Match Column I (force/situation) with Column II (work done):
A. Centripetal force in uniform circular motion — i. zero
B. Friction on a stationary block on rough floor — ii. zero
C. Gravity on a body in free fall — iii. positive
D. Spring force during compression — iv. negative

A pump of efficiency 80% is used to lift water from a depth of 20 m to deliver 15 kg of water per second. The input power required is (g = 10 m/s²):

A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg·m² spinning at 10 rad/s is dropped onto a stationary identical disc on the same axle. The common angular speed is:

Assertion (A): The angular momentum of a system of particles is conserved when no external torque acts on it.
Reason (R): The total external torque equals the rate of change of angular momentum.

In an adiabatic process for an ideal gas, the relation between pressure and volume is:

For an ideal monoatomic gas at temperature T, the average translational KE per molecule is:

Match Column I (process) with Column II (first law expression):
A. Isothermal — i. Q = W
B. Adiabatic — ii. Q = 0, ΔU = −W
C. Isochoric — iii. W = 0, Q = ΔU
D. Isobaric — iv. Q = ΔU + PΔV

A simple pendulum has time period 2 s on Earth. Its time period on the Moon (g_moon = g/6) is approximately:

Assertion (A): The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is half that of an open organ pipe of the same length.
Reason (R): A closed pipe supports only odd harmonics.

A train moving at 30 m/s towards a stationary observer sounds a whistle of frequency 600 Hz. The frequency heard is (v_sound = 340 m/s):

Match Column I (property) with Column II (S.I. unit):
A. Surface tension — i. N/m
B. Coefficient of viscosity — ii. Pa·s
C. Bulk modulus — iii. Pa
D. Stress — iv. N/m²

A small steel ball of radius 1 mm and density 8000 kg/m³ falls through glycerine of density 1300 kg/m³ and viscosity 0.83 Pa·s. The terminal velocity is approximately (g = 10 m/s²):

Assertion (A): A photodiode is operated in reverse bias.
Reason (R): In reverse bias, the change in photocurrent due to incident light is more easily measurable.

The output of the logic circuit obtained by combining a NAND gate followed by a NOT gate is equivalent to:

The acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below Earth’s surface (radius R) is:

Two satellites of the same mass orbit Earth at radii R and 4R. The ratio of their orbital periods T₁ : T₂ is:

A particle starts from rest with constant acceleration. The ratio of distances covered in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd seconds is:

A boy throws a ball vertically up with speed 20 m/s from the top of a 25 m tower. Time to reach ground (g = 10 m/s²):

In an EM wave, the energy density associated with the electric field component compared to that with the magnetic field component is:

Assertion (A): The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant is the same as that of angular momentum.
Reason (R): Both have S.I. unit J·s.

The number of atoms in 4.4 g of CO₂ (M = 44) is:

Match List I (quantity) with List II (unit) and choose the correct option:
List I: (A) Molarity (B) Molality (C) Mole fraction (D) Mass percent
List II: (i) mol/kg (ii) mol/L (iii) dimensionless (iv) g per 100 g

Assertion (A): The 4s orbital is filled before the 3d orbital.
Reason (R): The (n+l) value of 4s (4+0=4) is less than that of 3d (3+2=5).

The orbital angular momentum of an electron in a 3d orbital is (in units of h/2π):

Assertion (A): The dipole moment of NF₃ is less than that of NH₃.
Reason (R): The N–F bond moment and the lone-pair moment in NF₃ point in opposite directions.

Match List I (species) with List II (geometry):
(A) BrF₅ (B) SF₄ (C) ClF₃ (D) XeF₄
(i) See-saw (ii) Square pyramidal (iii) T-shaped (iv) Square planar

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(I) O₂ is paramagnetic according to MO theory.
(II) The bond order of N₂⁺ is 2.5.
(III) The bond order of CO is 3.

The bond order in superoxide ion (O₂⁻) is:

The standard enthalpy of formation of CO₂(g), H₂O(l) and C₃H₈(g) are −393.5, −285.8 and −103.8 kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of propane is:

Assertion (A): Entropy of a perfect crystal at 0 K is zero.
Reason (R): At 0 K all molecular motion ceases and there is only one possible microstate.

The freezing point depression of 0.1 m K₂SO₄ aqueous solution (Kf = 1.86 K kg/mol, complete dissociation) is:

Assertion (A): Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold waters than in warm waters.
Reason (R): Solubility of gases in water decreases with rise in temperature.

For the reaction PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) at equilibrium, addition of inert gas at constant volume will:

The pH of a buffer made of 0.1 M CH₃COOH and 0.1 M CH₃COONa (pKa = 4.74) is:

Match List I (oxidising agent in acidic medium) with List II (reduced product):
(A) MnO₄⁻ (B) Cr₂O₇²⁻ (C) MnO₂ (D) ClO₃⁻
(i) Cl⁻ (ii) Mn²⁺ (iii) Cr³⁺ (iv) Mn²⁺

The standard reduction potentials of Cu²⁺/Cu and Ag⁺/Ag are +0.34 V and +0.80 V respectively. The standard EMF of the cell Cu|Cu²⁺||Ag⁺|Ag is:

Assertion (A): Molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte increases slowly with dilution.
Reason (R): On dilution, ions get apart and ionic mobility increases due to decrease in interionic attractions.

For a zero-order reaction, the integrated rate law is:

Which of the following statements is/are correct about order of a reaction?
(I) Order can be zero, integer or fractional.
(II) Order is always equal to molecularity.
(III) Order is determined experimentally.

The element with the highest electron gain enthalpy (most negative) is:

Match List I (compound) with List II (property):
(A) BeCl₂ (B) AlCl₃ (C) PbCl₂ (D) SnCl₂
(i) Lewis acid, dimer (ii) Polymeric in solid state (iii) Reducing agent (iv) Inert pair effect, +2 stable

Assertion (A): Bleaching action of chlorine is permanent.
Reason (R): Cl₂ bleaches by oxidation in presence of moisture.

Which of the following statements about noble gases is/are correct?
(I) They have completely filled valence shell ns² np⁶ (except He, 1s²).
(II) Xenon forms compounds like XeF₂, XeF₄, XeF₆.
(III) Helium has the highest first ionisation enthalpy of all elements.

Assertion (A): Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition elements.
Reason (R): They have completely filled (n−1)d¹⁰ ns² configuration in ground and common oxidation states.

Match List I (ion) with List II (number of unpaired e⁻) (high spin / aqueous):
(A) Mn²⁺ (B) Fe²⁺ (C) Co²⁺ (D) Ni²⁺
(i) 2 (ii) 3 (iii) 4 (iv) 5

The lanthanoid contraction is mainly responsible for:

Assertion (A): [Ni(CO)₄] is tetrahedral and diamagnetic.
Reason (R): CO is a strong field ligand and forces pairing of d electrons in Ni(0).

Match List I (complex) with List II (hybridisation):
(A) [Ni(CO)₄] (B) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ (C) [NiCl₄]²⁻ (D) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(i) sp³ (ii) dsp² (iii) sp³ (iv) d²sp³

In the spectrochemical series, which of the following is the correct order of crystal field strength?

Linkage isomerism is shown by which of the following pairs of complexes?

Assertion (A): Vinyl chloride and chlorobenzene are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason (R): The C–Cl bond in these compounds has partial double-bond character due to resonance.

Sandmeyer reaction is used to convert:

Which of the following statements about benzene is/are correct?
(I) It has equal C–C bond lengths (~139 pm).
(II) It contains six delocalised π electrons.
(III) It undergoes addition reactions more readily than substitution.

The number of σ and π bonds in propyne (CH₃–C≡CH) are:

Among CH₃⁺, CH₃CH₂⁺, (CH₃)₂CH⁺ and (CH₃)₃C⁺, the order of stability is:

Assertion (A): t-butyl alcohol reacts with Lucas reagent immediately.
Reason (R): It forms a stable tertiary carbocation in SN1 mechanism.

Kolbe’s reaction of sodium phenoxide with CO₂ followed by acidification gives:

Match List I (reagent) with List II (reaction it is associated with):
(A) Tollens’ reagent (B) Fehling’s solution (C) NH₂NH₂/KOH (D) Zn-Hg/HCl
(i) Wolff–Kishner reduction (ii) Clemmensen reduction (iii) Silver mirror test (iv) Red ppt with aldehydes

Which of the following compounds gives benzoic acid on oxidation with hot KMnO₄?

Assertion (A): Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols.
Reason (R): The carboxylate anion is stabilised by resonance with two equivalent oxygen atoms.

The carbylamine reaction (RNH₂ + CHCl₃ + KOH) is given by:

Match List I (compound) with List II (test/reaction):
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Starch (D) Protein
(i) Iodine test gives blue colour (ii) Biuret test (iii) Tollens’ positive (iv) Non-reducing

Which of the following statements is/are correct about α-amino acids?
(I) They exist as zwitterions in aqueous solution.
(II) Glycine is optically inactive.
(III) All natural amino acids in proteins have the L-configuration.

Assertion (A): Vitamin C cannot be stored in the body.
Reason (R): It is water-soluble and gets readily excreted in urine.

Which of the following statements about basic strength of amines in gas phase is correct?

Assertion (A): C4 plants show higher productivity than C3 plants under high temperature.
Reason (R): C4 plants lack photorespiration due to the presence of Kranz anatomy and PEP carboxylase.

Match Column I with Column II:
Column I (Plant hormone) — Column II (Function)
A. Auxin — i. Bolting in rosette plants
B. Gibberellin — ii. Promotes apical dominance
C. Cytokinin — iii. Stomatal closure in water stress
D. ABA — iv. Promotes cytokinesis

As per NCERT, the splitting of water molecules during photosynthesis is associated with which photosystem?

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration is INCORRECT?

Assertion (A): Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of carbohydrates is 1.
Reason (R): The volume of CO₂ evolved is equal to the volume of O₂ consumed during oxidation of glucose.

As per NCERT, photoperiodism was first described in:

The cell organelle described in NCERT as the ‘site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids’ is:

Assertion (A): Lysosomes are described as ‘suicidal bags’ of the cell.
Reason (R): Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.

Match Column I with Column II:
Column I (Cell phase) — Column II (Event)
A. G1 — i. DNA synthesis
B. S — ii. Cell prepares to divide; metabolic activity
C. G2 — iii. Synthesis of proteins for mitosis
D. M — iv. Equational division

Which of the following statements about the nucleolus is CORRECT as per NCERT?

As per NCERT, in animal cells, centrioles are present in:

Assertion (A): Vernalisation refers to qualitative dependence of flowering on low temperature exposure.
Reason (R): Some plants like winter wheat and biennials require chilling treatment to induce flowering.

Which one of the following correctly describes the position of the female gametophyte at maturity in angiosperms (NCERT verbatim)?

Match Column I with Column II:
Column I (Plant) — Column II (Pollination)
A. Vallisneria — i. Cross-pollination by bees
B. Salvia — ii. Hydrophily
C. Yucca — iii. Lever mechanism
D. Maize — iv. Wind pollination

Assertion (A): Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic event involving signals between pollen and pistil.
Reason (R): The pistil has the ability to recognise the pollen and either accept or reject it.

Which one of the following statements about parthenocarpy is CORRECT?

As per NCERT, the outermost and innermost wall layers of the anther wall, respectively, are:

Match Column I with Column II:
Column I (Disease) — Column II (Inheritance pattern)
A. Sickle-cell anaemia — i. Autosomal aneuploidy
B. Down syndrome — ii. Sex chromosome aneuploidy (XXY)
C. Klinefelter syndrome — iii. Autosomal recessive (point mutation)
D. Turner syndrome — iv. 45, X0

Assertion (A): DNA is more stable than RNA.
Reason (R): The 2′-OH group present in RNA makes it labile and easily degradable.

Which of the following statements about the genetic code is INCORRECT?

Match Column I with Column II:
Column I (Scientist) — Column II (Contribution)
A. Griffith — i. DNA is genetic material (transformation in T2 phage)
B. Avery, MacLeod, McCarty — ii. Transforming principle in Streptococcus
C. Hershey & Chase — iii. Biochemical nature of transforming principle (DNA)
D. Meselson & Stahl — iv. Semi-conservative DNA replication

Assertion (A): The Human Genome Project is called a mega project.
Reason (R): It was a 13-year project to sequence the entire 3 × 10⁹ bp human genome.

Which of the following statements about Mendel’s law of independent assortment is CORRECT (NCERT verbatim)?

Match Column I (Ecological pyramid) with Column II (Nature):
A. Pyramid of energy — i. Always upright
B. Pyramid of biomass in sea — ii. Inverted
C. Pyramid of numbers in tree — iii. Inverted
D. Pyramid of numbers in grassland — iv. Upright

Assertion (A): A stable community shows high productivity and resistance to invasion by alien species.
Reason (R): Stability arises from long-term evolutionary adjustment among species.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the population age pyramids?

Match Column I (Biodiversity hotspot in India) with Column II (Region):
A. Western Ghats — i. NE India
B. Indo-Burma — ii. Peninsular India
C. Himalaya — iii. Northern mountains
D. Sundaland — iv. Nicobar Islands

As per NCERT, the largest biodiversity in India is shown by:

Match Column I (Algal class) with Column II (Reserve food):
A. Chlorophyceae — i. Mannitol, laminarin
B. Phaeophyceae — ii. Floridean starch
C. Rhodophyceae — iii. Starch

Assertion (A): Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams.
Reason (R): They produce seeds enclosed in fruits.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of taxonomic categories from kingdom to species?

Match Column I (Fungal class) with Column II (Example):
A. Phycomycetes — i. Agaricus
B. Ascomycetes — ii. Puccinia
C. Basidiomycetes — iii. Penicillium
D. Deuteromycetes — iv. Rhizopus

As per NCERT, in the lac operon, the regulator gene (i) codes for:

Match Column I (Tool of rDNA technology) with Column II (Function):
A. Restriction enzyme — i. Joins DNA fragments
B. DNA ligase — ii. Cuts DNA at specific sequences
C. PCR — iii. Amplifies DNA in vitro
D. Gel electrophoresis — iv. Separates DNA fragments by size

Assertion (A): Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis is harmless to the bacterium itself.
Reason (R): Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin (crystal protein) in the bacterium and gets activated only in the alkaline insect gut.

Which of the following statements about cry genes is CORRECT?

Match Column I (Plant tissue) with Column II (Feature):
A. Collenchyma — i. Dead cells, lignified, support
B. Sclerenchyma — ii. Living cells, thickened at corners with cellulose & pectin
C. Parenchyma — iii. Photosynthesis, storage
D. Aerenchyma — iv. Buoyancy in aquatic plants

Assertion (A): Casparian strip in the endodermis of dicot root forces water and ions to enter the symplast.
Reason (R): Casparian strips are bands of suberin that are impermeable to water.

As per NCERT, the floral formula of family Solanaceae is:

Which of the following plants is the correct example of pneumatophores (breathing roots)?

Match Column I (Microbial product) with Column II (Source organism):
A. Penicillin — i. Streptococcus
B. Streptokinase — ii. Penicillium
C. Cyclosporin A — iii. Trichoderma
D. Lactic acid — iv. Lactobacillus

Assertion (A): Activated sludge process in sewage treatment uses aerobic microbes.
Reason (R): Aerobic microbes vigorously grow on organic matter forming flocs which can be removed by sedimentation.

Match Column I (Biomolecule) with Column II (Example):
A. Polysaccharide — i. Insulin
B. Protein — ii. Cellulose
C. Lipid — iii. Lecithin
D. Nucleic acid — iv. tRNA

Which of the following statements about enzymes is CORRECT as per NCERT?

Assertion (A): Industrial melanism in peppered moth (Biston betularia) is an example of natural selection.
Reason (R): During industrial revolution, dark-coloured moths were better camouflaged on soot-covered tree bark and survived predation better.

Assertion (A): Blood is a connective tissue.
Reason (R): Blood has a fluid matrix called plasma in which cells are suspended.

Assertion (A): Bowman’s capsule along with the glomerulus is called the renal/Malpighian corpuscle.
Reason (R): Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by afferent arteriole.

Assertion (A): Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment of human RBCs.
Reason (R): Each haemoglobin molecule carries a maximum of four molecules of O₂.

Assertion (A): Down’s syndrome individuals have 47 chromosomes.
Reason (R): It is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21.

Assertion (A): The Pace-maker of human heart is the SA node.
Reason (R): SA node generates the maximum number of action potentials per minute (70-75).

Assertion (A): Insulin is synthesised as a prohormone.
Reason (R): The C-peptide is removed during the maturation of insulin.

Assertion (A): The number of ATPs produced per glucose in aerobic respiration is 36-38.
Reason (R): The Krebs cycle does not occur in the absence of oxygen.

Assertion (A): Lamarck’s theory of inheritance of acquired characters is rejected.
Reason (R): Weismann cut tails of mice for 21 generations but mice were still born with tails.

Match List I with List II:
List I (Hormone) List II (Disorder)
A. GH (excess in adult) I. Cretinism
B. Thyroxin deficiency in child II. Acromegaly
C. Insulin deficiency III. Diabetes mellitus
D. ADH deficiency IV. Diabetes insipidus

Match List I (Contraceptive) with List II (Type):
A. Cu-T I. Hormonal IUD
B. LNG-20 II. Copper releasing IUD
C. Saheli III. Non-steroidal pill
D. Mala-D IV. Steroidal oral pill

Match List I (Animal) with List II (Phylum):
A. Limulus I. Echinodermata
B. Antedon II. Arthropoda
C. Pleurobrachia III. Ctenophora
D. Adamsia IV. Cnidaria

Match List I (Disease) with List II (Causal organism):
A. Typhoid I. Wuchereria
B. Pneumonia II. Salmonella
C. Filariasis III. Streptococcus
D. Ringworm IV. Microsporum

Match List I (Bone) with List II (Number in adult human):
A. Cervical vertebrae I. 12
B. Thoracic vertebrae II. 7
C. Pairs of ribs III. 12
D. Carpals (per hand) IV. 8

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the human heart?

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Which of the following statements about the cell cycle is correct?

Which structure in the human eye contains rods and cones?

Acrosome of the sperm contains:

Sertoli cells are also known as:

Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of:

Amniocentesis is being misused for:

ART technique in which sperm is directly injected into the ovum is called:

Match List I (Cockroach part) with List II (Function):
A. Mandibles I. Excretion
B. Malpighian tubules II. Biting and chewing
C. Spiracles III. Respiration
D. Anal cerci IV. Sensory

In Periplaneta the nervous system consists of:

Which of the following is correct about haemoglobin?

Statement I: ABO blood grouping is based on the presence/absence of two surface antigens A and B on RBCs.
Statement II: Persons with blood group O are universal donors and group AB are universal recipients. Choose the correct option:

Statement I: Sickle-cell anaemia is autosomal recessive caused by substitution of glutamic acid by valine at 6th position of beta-globin chain.
Statement II: It is a chromosomal disorder due to non-disjunction.

Statement I: Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive disorder.
Statement II: A single defective copy in males (XY) is sufficient to manifest the disease.

Match List I (Animal) with List II (Feature):
A. Spongilla I. Choanocytes
B. Hydra II. Cnidoblasts
C. Ascaris III. Pseudocoelom
D. Octopus IV. Mantle

Which of the following statements about Class Aves is incorrect?

Assertion (A): Mammals have heterodont dentition.
Reason (R): All mammals are oviparous.

Assertion (A): The first cloned sheep was named Dolly.
Reason (R): Dolly was created using somatic cell nuclear transfer.

The first transgenic cow Rosie produced human protein-enriched milk containing:

Which one of the following ELISA techniques detects HIV?

Smack (heroin) is obtained from latex of:

Which of the following gives passive immunity to a newborn?

Match List I (Vitamin) with List II (Deficiency disease):
A. Vitamin A I. Beriberi
B. Vitamin B1 II. Night blindness
C. Vitamin C III. Rickets
D. Vitamin D IV. Scurvy

Statement I: Meiosis I is reductional division while meiosis II is equational.
Statement II: Crossing over takes place in pachytene of prophase I.

Anaphase of mitosis is characterised by:

In meiosis I, chiasmata are visible during:

Age distribution of a population shows three ecological ages: pre-reproductive, reproductive and post-reproductive. The shape of the age pyramid that indicates a growing population is:

Assertion (A): Homologous organs show divergent evolution.
Reason (R): Forelimbs of whales, bats and humans have similar anatomical structure but different functions.

Industrial melanism in peppered moth (Biston betularia) was studied by:

Hardy-Weinberg principle is disturbed by all the following EXCEPT:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium life cycle?