Q1. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A horizontal force of 20 N is applied on the block. If the coefficient of static friction is 0.5 and kinetic friction is 0.4, the acceleration of the block is: (g = 10 m/s²)

Q2. A car of mass 1500 kg moving at 20 m/s applies brakes and stops in 10 seconds. The retarding force acting on the car is:

Q3. A projectile is fired with velocity u at angle θ with horizontal. The ratio of maximum height to the range of the projectile is:

Q4. A uniform rod of length L and mass M is pivoted at one end. The moment of inertia about the pivot is:

Q5. A satellite of mass m is orbiting Earth at radius r. If the radius is doubled keeping mass of satellite constant, the orbital speed becomes:

Q6. A body of mass 2 kg is moving in a circle of radius 0.5 m with angular velocity 4 rad/s. The centripetal force acting on the body is:

Q7. A disc of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface. If the velocity of the centre of mass is v, the total kinetic energy of the disc is:

Q8. The escape velocity from Earth’s surface is approximately 11.2 km/s. The escape velocity from a planet with twice the mass and twice the radius of Earth would be:

Q9. Statement I: Newton’s third law of motion holds for both contact and non-contact forces.
Statement II: Action and reaction forces act on the same body and are equal and opposite.

Q10. A spring of spring constant k = 200 N/m is compressed by 0.1 m. A block of mass 0.5 kg is placed against it and released. The speed of the block when it leaves the spring is:

Q11. Two charges +4 μC and –4 μC are separated by a distance of 0.4 m in vacuum. The electric field at the midpoint of the line joining them is: (k = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²/C²)

Q12. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to potential V. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is inserted fully between the plates (battery disconnected), the new potential across the capacitor is:

Q13. In a Wheatstone bridge, resistances P = 10 Ω, Q = 10 Ω, R = 20 Ω are connected. The bridge is balanced. The value of S is:

Q14. Match List-I (Electrical quantities) with List-II (SI Units):
List-I: (A) Electric potential (B) Electric field intensity (C) Electric flux (D) Capacitance
List-II: (I) N/C (II) Volt (III) N·m²/C (IV) Farad

Q15. A long straight wire carries a current of 5 A. The magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm from the wire is: (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A)

Q16. A solenoid of length 0.5 m has 1000 turns. If a current of 2 A flows through it, the magnetic field inside the solenoid is: (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A)

Q17. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced EMF in a circuit is equal to the negative rate of change of:

Q18. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms an image of an object placed 30 cm from it. The image is:

Q19. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is β. If the distance between the slits is doubled and the distance to the screen is halved, the new fringe width is:

Q20. A glass prism of apex angle 60° has refractive index √2. The angle of minimum deviation is:

Q21. The photoelectric effect demonstrates that light has:

Q22. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V is approximately: (m_e = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)

Q23. Which of the following nuclear reactions represents alpha decay?

Q24. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:

Q25. An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process. Which of the following is conserved?

Q26. For an ideal gas at constant pressure, the work done by the gas when temperature changes from T₁ to T₂ is:

Q27. A simple pendulum of length L is executing SHM. If the length is increased to 4L, the new time period becomes:

Q28. In a p-n junction diode, the width of the depletion region:

Q29. Statement I: Photons are deflected by a gravitational field.
Statement II: Photons have zero rest mass but finite momentum hν/c.

Q30. The dimensional formula for coefficient of viscosity (η) is:

Q31. Water flows through a horizontal pipe with a constriction. According to Bernoulli’s principle, at the constriction:

Q32. A transformer has 200 turns in primary and 1000 turns in secondary. If the primary is connected to 220 V AC, the secondary voltage and the type of transformer are:

Q33. Match List-I (Physical phenomenon) with List-II (Principle/Law used):
List-I: (A) Working of optical fibre (B) Formation of rainbow (C) Blue colour of sky (D) Mirage
List-II: (I) Total Internal Reflection (II) Dispersion and TIR (III) Scattering of light (IV) Refraction due to density gradient

Q34. The output of an AND gate is 1 only when:

Q35. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. The electric and magnetic fields in an EM wave are:

Q36. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity 49 m/s. The maximum height reached and total time in air are: (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Q37. Two balls, one of mass m and another of mass 2m, undergo a perfectly elastic head-on collision. The lighter ball was initially at rest. After collision, the velocity of the lighter ball (initial velocity of heavier ball = u) is:

Q38. The gravitational potential energy of a satellite of mass m at height h above Earth’s surface (Earth radius R, mass M) is:

Q39. A copper wire has resistance 10 Ω at 20°C. If temperature coefficient of resistance of copper is 4 × 10⁻³ /°C, the resistance at 120°C is:

Q40. An AC circuit has R = 30 Ω, X_L = 40 Ω in series. The impedance and power factor of the circuit are:

Q41. Brewster’s angle for a glass surface (n = 1.732) is:

Q42. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the radius of the nth orbit is proportional to:

Q43. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The fraction remaining after 1 hour is:

Q44. Which of the following logic gate combinations is equivalent to NAND gate?

Q45. A standing wave is formed on a string of length L fixed at both ends. The wavelength of the fundamental frequency is:

Q46. Statement I: The rms speed of gas molecules is greater than the average speed.
Statement II: Root mean square of unequal positive numbers is always greater than their arithmetic mean.

Q47. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its velocity. The particle moves in:

Q48. The ratio Cₚ/Cᵥ for a diatomic ideal gas at moderate temperatures is:

Q49. The work done by the electric field when a charge of 2 C is moved from a point at potential 10 V to a point at potential 20 V is:

Q50. Which type of electromagnetic radiation is used in RADAR systems?

Q51. The IUPAC name of CH₃–CH(Cl)–CH₂–CH₃ is:

Q52. In the Grignard reagent, the general formula is RMgX. When phenyl magnesium bromide (C₆H₅MgBr) reacts with formaldehyde (HCHO) followed by hydrolysis, the product is:

Q53. Friedel-Crafts alkylation uses which catalyst?

Q54. Aldol condensation occurs between two molecules of acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO). The product after condensation (before dehydration) is:

Q55. Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes that:

Q56. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in but-1-yne (HC≡C–CH₂–CH₃) is:

Q57. In SN1 reaction, the rate of reaction depends on:

Q58. Nylon-6,6 is a polyamide formed by the condensation of:

Q59. Which of the following amino acids is essential (cannot be synthesized by the human body)?

Q60. Match List-I (Named Reactions) with List-II (Reagents/Conditions used):
List-I: (A) Sandmeyer reaction (B) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (C) Kolbe’s reaction (D) Clemmensen reduction
List-II: (I) CHCl₃/NaOH on phenol (II) CuCN on diazonium salt (III) CO₂/NaOH under pressure on sodium phenoxide (IV) Zn-Hg/HCl on carbonyl compound

Q61. The coordination compound [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl exhibits which type of isomerism?

Q62. According to Crystal Field Theory, the splitting energy Δₒ (octahedral) and Δₜ (tetrahedral) are related as:

Q63. In Group 15 elements (pnictogens), the stability of +5 oxidation state decreases down the group due to:

Q64. The magnetic moment of a coordination complex is 3.87 BM. The number of unpaired electrons in the central metal ion is:

Q65. Among the halogens, which one is the strongest oxidizing agent?

Q66. The hybridization of sulfur in SF₆ is:

Q67. Statement I: The first ionization enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen.
Statement II: Nitrogen has a half-filled 2p subshell which imparts extra stability.

Q68. In the extraction of aluminium (Hall-Heroult process), the electrolyte used is:

Q69. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 2.303 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹. The time required to reduce the concentration to 10% of its initial value is:

Q70. The Arrhenius equation relates rate constant to temperature as k = Ae^(–Ea/RT). The term ‘A’ represents:

Q71. For the reaction: PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g), the relationship between Kp and Kc is:

Q72. The standard enthalpy of formation of CO₂(g) is –393.5 kJ/mol. This means:

Q73. For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) must be:

Q74. The Nernst equation for an electrochemical cell is E = E° – (RT/nF) ln Q. At 25°C, for a 2-electron process, the equation simplifies to:

Q75. The van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ for BaCl₂ (assuming complete dissociation) is:

Q76. The quantum numbers for the outermost electron of sodium (Na, Z=11) are:

Q77. 5.85 g of NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol) is dissolved in water to make 1 litre of solution. The molarity of the solution is:

Q78. Match List-I (Type of isomerism) with List-II (Example):
List-I: (A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Optical isomerism (C) Conformational isomerism (D) Positional isomerism
List-II: (I) Lactic acid (II) 2-butene (cis/trans) (III) o-, m-, p-cresol (IV) Staggered and eclipsed ethane

Q79. The VSEPR shape of XeF₄ is:

Q80. Which of the following represents the correct decreasing order of acidic strength?

Q81. Lanthanide contraction is caused by:

Q82. The process of zone refining is used to purify:

Q83. Statement I: Adding an inert gas at constant volume to an equilibrium system does not shift the equilibrium.
Statement II: Adding an inert gas at constant volume does not change the partial pressures of reactants or products.

Q84. The osmotic pressure of a 0.1 M solution of glucose at 27°C is: (R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)

Q85. A functional group test: a compound gives red/orange precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (DNP) but does NOT give silver mirror with Tollens’ reagent. The functional group present is:

Q86. The number of structural isomers possible for C₄H₉Br is:

Q87. Which of the following will undergo E2 elimination most readily?

Q88. The standard electrode potential (E°) of Zn²⁺/Zn is –0.76 V and of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. The EMF of the Daniel cell (Zn|Zn²⁺||Cu²⁺|Cu) is:

Q89. Glucose and fructose are examples of:

Q90. For a reaction with activation energy Ea = 50 kJ/mol, increasing temperature from 300 K to 310 K approximately increases the rate constant by a factor of (R = 8.314 J/mol·K; use ln k₂/k₁ = Ea/R × (T₂–T₁)/(T₁T₂)):

Q91. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is:

Q92. The number of moles of electrons transferred when 9650 C of charge is passed through an electrolytic cell is: (F = 96500 C/mol)

Q93. Which of the following gases is obtained when copper is treated with dilute nitric acid (HNO₃)?

Q94. The boiling point of a 1 molal aqueous glucose solution is: (Kb for water = 0.52 K·kg/mol)

Q95. Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl, RbCl, which has the highest lattice enthalpy (most negative)?

Q96. The reaction of aniline with acetic anhydride is called acetylation. The product is:

Q97. Statement I: H₂O has a higher boiling point than H₂S.
Statement II: Water molecules form extensive hydrogen bonds due to high electronegativity and small size of oxygen.

Q98. Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer formed by the condensation of:

Q99. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to simultaneously determine, with precision, the:

Q100. The solubility product (Ksp) of AgCl is 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰. The molar solubility of AgCl in pure water is:

Q101. According to Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment, a dihybrid cross (AaBb × AaBb) produces a phenotypic ratio of:

Q102. The process of DNA replication is called semi-conservative because:

Q103. In the genetic code, a codon consists of:

Q104. The enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments during DNA replication is:

Q105. During translation, the start codon AUG codes for which amino acid?

Q106. A point mutation where one nitrogenous base is replaced by another of the same type (purine by purine or pyrimidine by pyrimidine) is called:

Q107. The biodiversity hotspot concept was introduced by:

Q108. The relationship between clownfish and sea anemone is an example of:

Q109. In a population growth model, the logistic growth equation is dN/dt = rN(K–N)/K. ‘K’ represents:

Q110. The concept of ecological succession was described comprehensively by:

Q111. In C₄ plants, CO₂ is first fixed in the mesophyll cells to form a 4-carbon compound. This compound is:

Q112. The Calvin cycle (C3 cycle) fixes CO₂ using the enzyme:

Q113. The site of dark reactions (Calvin cycle) in the chloroplast is:

Q114. Ethylene (C₂H₄) as a plant hormone is associated with:

Q115. The pressure flow hypothesis explains phloem transport. The driving force is:

Q116. Dicot stem anatomy differs from monocot stem anatomy in that in dicot stems:

Q117. The function of the casparian strip in the endodermis of the root is to:

Q118. Which of the following flower types has only stamens?

Q119. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate. This is called:

Q120. The organelle responsible for protein secretion in eukaryotic cells (packaging and transport) is:

Q121. In recombinant DNA technology, restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sequences called:

Q122. The vector pBR322 contains genes for resistance to which two antibiotics?

Q123. Bt toxin (from Bacillus thuringiensis) kills insects by:

Q124. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) uses an enzyme that remains active at high temperatures. This enzyme is:

Q125. Match List-I (Algal group) with List-II (Characteristic feature):
List-I: (A) Chlorophyta (B) Rhodophyta (C) Phaeophyta (D) Chrysophyta
List-II: (I) Brown algae; algin in cell wall (II) Green algae; chlorophyll a and b (III) Golden-brown algae; diatoms (IV) Red algae; phycoerythrin pigment

Q126. Lichen is a symbiotic association between:

Q127. The enzyme pepsin functions optimally at:

Q128. Which vitamin is synthesized by the human gut bacteria and is essential for blood clotting?

Q129. Statement I: Bryophytes are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Statement II: Bryophytes require water for sexual reproduction (fertilization), but can live on land.

Q130. The process by which recombination occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during meiosis prophase I is:

Q131. The first step in aerobic respiration, glycolysis, occurs in the:

Q132. The net gain of ATP molecules in one complete cycle of the Krebs cycle (per acetyl-CoA) from substrate level phosphorylation is:

Q133. Gene therapy involves:

Q134. The ‘species-area relationship’ proposed by Alexander von Humboldt states that:

Q135. Which of the following correctly describes the primary ecological succession on a bare rock?

Q136. In incomplete dominance, a cross between red (RR) and white (rr) flowers gives pink (Rr) offspring. When two pink flowers are crossed, the ratio of phenotypes in F₂ is:

Q137. The trophic efficiency (energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem) is approximately:

Q138. Abscisic acid (ABA) is called the stress hormone because it:

Q140. Which of the following is NOT a recombinant DNA technique tool?

Q141. The formula for calculating species diversity index (Shannon index H’) is:

Q142. The net primary productivity (NPP) of an ecosystem is:

Q143. The nitrogenous base that is found in RNA but NOT in DNA is:

Q144. Statement I: In C₄ plants, photorespiration is negligible compared to C₃ plants.
Statement II: Bundle sheath cells in C₄ plants have high CO₂ concentration, suppressing oxygenase activity of RuBisCO.

Q145. The number of ATP molecules produced by complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose (aerobic respiration) in eukaryotes is approximately:

Q146. The study of the distribution of organisms and ecosystems in geographic space and geological time is called:

Q147. Totipotency of plant cells means that:

Q148. In pneumatophores (breathing roots) of mangroves, the specialized tissue that allows gas exchange is:

Q149. The pollen tube in angiosperms enters the ovule usually through:

Q150. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) primarily infects which immune cells?

Q151. The enzyme responsible for the digestion of proteins in the small intestine (secreted by the pancreas as a zymogen) is:

Q152. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the:

Q153. In the cardiac cycle, the ‘lubb’ sound is produced by:

Q154. The normal resting heart rate (beats per minute) in a healthy adult is:

Q155. The tidal volume of air in normal breathing (volume of air inhaled/exhaled per breath) in a healthy adult is approximately:

Q156. The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the:

Q157. The process by which excess amino acids are converted to urea in the liver is called:

Q158. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is maintained primarily by:

Q159. Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis)?

Q160. Match List-I (Endocrine gland) with List-II (Hormone secreted):
List-I: (A) Adrenal cortex (B) Islets of Langerhans (β cells) (C) Thyroid gland (D) Corpus luteum
List-II: (I) Progesterone (II) Cortisol (III) Thyroxine (T₄) (IV) Insulin

Q161. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction states that:

Q162. Spermatogenesis in humans begins at puberty and occurs in the:

Q163. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by high levels of:

Q164. Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) prevent pregnancy primarily by:

Q165. The ectoderm of the embryo gives rise to:

Q166. Which phylum is characterised by a water vascular system?

Q167. The body plan of Porifera (sponges) is based on:

Q168. Which of the following is the correct matching of phylum and its distinguishing feature?

Q169. DNA fingerprinting uses which technique to identify individuals based on variations in repetitive DNA sequences?

Q170. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin gene. This mutation changes:

Q171. In sex determination of humans (XX-XY system), the sex of the offspring is determined by:

Q172. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that allele frequencies in a population remain constant in the absence of:

Q173. Statement I: Industrial melanism in Biston betularia moths is an example of natural selection.
Statement II: Dark moths survived better in polluted industrial areas because they were camouflaged against soot-darkened tree bark.

Q174. The primary immune response is characterized by:

Q175. Typhoid fever is caused by:

Q176. The biogas produced from animal dung in biogas plants contains primarily:

Q177. In animal husbandry, ‘multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology’ (MOET) is used to:

Q178. Binary fission, budding, and fragmentation are all types of:

Q179. The blastocyst implants in the uterine wall approximately how many days after fertilization?

Q180. Gastrulation involves the formation of the three primary germ layers. The correct sequence of germ layers from outside to inside is:

Q181. The greenhouse effect is primarily caused by an increase in atmospheric concentration of:

Q182. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by excessive:

Q183. Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Causative agent / Vector):
List-I: (A) Malaria (B) Filariasis (C) Ascariasis (D) Amoebiasis
List-II: (I) Wuchereria bancrofti, Culex mosquito (II) Entamoeba histolytica (III) Plasmodium, Anopheles mosquito (IV) Ascaris lumbricoides

Q184. The spinal cord is protected by three meninges. From outermost to innermost, they are:

Q185. Statement I: Opioids (morphine, heroin) are analgesics that also produce euphoria and are highly addictive.
Statement II: Opioids bind to specific receptors in the central nervous system, mimicking endogenous endorphins and suppressing pain signals.

Q186. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) in the kidney secretes renin when:

Q187. Which blood group is the universal donor?

Q188. The corpus callosum in the human brain connects the:

Q189. In a Testcross, a plant showing dominant phenotype is crossed with a homozygous recessive (aa). If the offspring ratio is 1:1 (dominant:recessive), the tested plant is:

Q190. Adaptive radiation refers to:

Q191. The causative agent of AIDS is HIV. HIV is a:

Q192. In honeybee society (apiculture), the haploid males are called:

Q193. Regeneration as a mode of asexual reproduction is shown by:

Q194. The Rh factor in blood is named after the Rhesus monkey. Rh incompatibility can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) when:

Q195. The enzyme reverse transcriptase in HIV performs which function?

Q196. Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains mucus-secreting goblet cells?

Q197. The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a water body is a measure of:

Q198. In Mendel’s experiments with pea plants, the trait ’round seed’ was dominant over ‘wrinkled seed’. When two F₁ plants (Rr) were crossed, the F₂ ratio of round:wrinkled was:

Q199. The functional unit of the lungs for gas exchange is the:

Q200. Which of the following is NOT a method of in vitro fertilization (IVF/Assisted Reproductive Technology)?