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NEET UG 2026 - Mock Test Paper
Set 1 | Full-Length Practice Paper
Based on Latest NTA Exam Pattern | ChapterNotes.in
General Instructions
- This paper contains 200 questions divided into 4 sections: Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology.
- Each section has two parts: Section A (35 compulsory questions) and Section B (15 questions, attempt any 10).
- Each correct answer carries +4 marks. Each wrong answer carries −1 mark. Unanswered questions carry 0 marks.
- Total duration: 3 hours 20 minutes (200 minutes). No extra time for any section.
- Use of calculator, log tables, or any electronic device is NOT permitted.
- This is an OMR-based offline exam. Mark your answers carefully - there is no option to change once marked.
- Assume standard values: g = 10 m/s², speed of light c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s unless stated otherwise.
PHYSICS
50 Questions | 180 Marks (Sec A: 35 compulsory + Sec B: attempt 10 of 15)Section A - Physics (Q1 to Q35)
All 35 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
Two point charges +3 μC and −3 μC are placed 20 cm apart in vacuum. The electric field at the midpoint of the line joining the two charges is:
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V and then disconnected from the battery. If the plates are pulled apart to double the separation, the energy stored in the capacitor becomes:
In the circuit shown, the current through the 2 Ω resistor when a 12 V battery with negligible internal resistance is connected across a series combination of 2 Ω, 4 Ω, and 6 Ω resistors is:
A straight conductor of length 0.5 m carrying a current of 2 A is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T perpendicular to the conductor. The force on the conductor is:
The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material at temperature T is proportional to:
A circular coil of 100 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T such that the field is perpendicular to the plane of the coil. If the coil is removed from the field in 0.1 s, the average emf induced is:
In an AC circuit, the rms voltage is 220 V and the rms current is 10 A. If the power consumed is 1100 W, the power factor of the circuit is:
Electromagnetic waves travel in vacuum with a speed equal to:
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms a real image of an object placed 30 cm from the lens. The magnification produced is:
In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the entire apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3, the new fringe width will be:
The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from this metal is approximately:
The radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å. The radius of the third orbit is:
The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:
In a p-n junction diode under forward bias, the width of the depletion layer:
The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant is the same as that of:
A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a frictionless surface. A force of 20 N is applied at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. The acceleration of the block is:
A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. A force is applied on it for 2 seconds and the body attains a velocity of 11 m/s. The work done by the force is:
The escape velocity from the surface of Earth is v. The escape velocity from the surface of a planet having twice the radius and same mean density as Earth is:
A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one end. If its other end is pulled by a force F, the increase in length is l. If the radius is doubled and length is halved, the increase in length will be:
In an isothermal process, the internal energy of an ideal gas:
A simple pendulum has a time period T. If its length is increased by 21%, the new time period will be approximately:
The speed of a transverse wave on a stretched string depends on:
The electric flux through a closed surface enclosing a charge q is given by Gauss’s law as:
Three capacitors of capacitance 2 μF, 3 μF and 6 μF are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is:
The resistivity of a semiconductor:
A proton and an alpha particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the same speed. The ratio of the radii of their circular paths (r_p : r_α) is:
The self-inductance of a long solenoid of length l, cross-sectional area A, and total number of turns N is:
At resonance in an LCR series circuit, the impedance of the circuit is:
Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the shortest wavelength?
A ray of light passes from glass (μ = 1.5) to water (μ = 1.33). The critical angle for total internal reflection is:
The de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V is approximately:
In Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment, the fraction of alpha particles scattered at angles greater than 90° is approximately:
The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 days. The fraction of the substance that remains after 90 days is:
In a full-wave rectifier using two diodes, the output frequency is:
A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The maximum height reached is: (g = 10 m/s²)
Section B - Physics (Q36 to Q50)
Attempt any 10 out of 15 questions. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E. The torque on the dipole is maximum when the angle between p and E is:
A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω gives full-scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. To convert it into a voltmeter of range 0–10 V, the resistance to be connected in series is:
A transformer has 500 turns in the primary and 50 turns in the secondary. If the primary voltage is 220 V, the secondary voltage is:
In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the width of the central maximum is:
The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface is independent of:
The energy equivalent of 1 atomic mass unit (amu) is approximately:
The Boolean expression for a NAND gate is:
If the momentum of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is (2/5)MR². Its moment of inertia about a tangent is:
Two thin lenses of focal lengths +20 cm and −40 cm are placed in contact. The focal length of the combination is:
A satellite is orbiting the Earth at a height h above the surface. The orbital velocity is v. If the height is doubled, the new orbital velocity will be:
The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 127°C and 27°C is:
Two wires A and B of the same material have their lengths in the ratio 1:2 and radii in the ratio 2:1. The ratio of their resistances R_A : R_B is:
In the hydrogen spectrum, the ratio of wavelengths of the first line of the Lyman series to the first line of the Balmer series is:
A body is thrown vertically upward with a velocity u. The distance travelled by the body in the last second of its upward journey is: (g = 10 m/s²)
CHEMISTRY
50 Questions | 180 Marks (Sec A: 35 compulsory + Sec B: attempt 10 of 15)Section A - Chemistry (Q51 to Q85)
All 35 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
The coordination number of each ion in a NaCl crystal structure is:
The molal elevation constant (K_b) of water is 0.52 K kg mol⁻¹. If 0.1 mol of glucose is dissolved in 500 g of water, the elevation in boiling point is:
The standard electrode potential of Zn²⁺/Zn is −0.76 V and Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. The EMF of the Daniell cell is:
For a first-order reaction, the half-life is 10 minutes. The time required for 75% completion is:
Which of the following is an example of physisorption?
In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Héroult process, the electrolyte used is:
Which of the following p-block elements does NOT show allotropy?
The electronic configuration of Cr (Z = 24) is:
The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl is:
The reaction of tert-butyl bromide with aqueous NaOH follows:
Which of the following alcohols gives a turbidity within 5 minutes with Lucas reagent at room temperature?
The product formed when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute NaOH is:
Among the following, the strongest base is:
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
Buna-S rubber is a copolymer of:
Which of the following is an antipyretic drug?
The number of moles of NaOH present in 500 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution is:
The quantum numbers of the 19th electron of chromium (Z = 24) are:
According to molecular orbital theory, the bond order of O₂ is:
The compressibility factor Z for an ideal gas is:
The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is:
In the reaction: MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O, the change in oxidation state of Mn is:
The IUPAC name of CH₃ - CH=CH - CHO is:
An aqueous solution freezes at −0.186°C. The molality of the solution is: (K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)
The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids per atom in a close-packed structure are respectively:
The unit of the rate constant for a second-order reaction is:
The shape of XeF₄ according to VSEPR theory is:
In the Kolbe reaction, phenol reacts with CO₂ in the presence of NaOH followed by acidification to give:
The hybridization of the central atom in SF₆ is:
Among the transition elements, the element with the highest number of oxidation states is:
The number of isomers possible for the complex [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ is:
Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare:
Which amino acid is not optically active?
The Tyndall effect is exhibited by:
The Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes that:
Section B - Chemistry (Q86 to Q100)
Attempt any 10 out of 15 questions. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute solution of K₂SO₄ is approximately:
The molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte at infinite dilution can be obtained by:
The type of colloid formed when a liquid is dispersed in a gas is called:
Interhalogen compound ClF₃ has a shape that is:
Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
The crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀) in an octahedral complex is affected by the nature of the ligand. The correct order of Δ₀ for the ligands is:
Which of the following reactions gives a primary amine?
Nylon-6,6 is a polymer of:
The enthalpy of formation of CO₂(g) is −393.5 kJ/mol. This means:
The reaction CH₃Br + KCN → CH₃CN + KBr is an example of:
Fehling’s solution is reduced by:
The coagulation of a positively charged sol can be most effectively brought about by:
The correct order of increasing acidic strength is:
In the extraction of copper from copper pyrites, the self-reduction step involves:
The secondary structure of proteins refers to:
BOTANY
50 Questions | 180 Marks (Sec A: 35 compulsory + Sec B: attempt 10 of 15)Section A - Botany (Q101 to Q135)
All 35 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
In angiosperms, the female gametophyte (embryo sac) is typically:
Double fertilisation in angiosperms involves:
Mendel’s law of independent assortment is applicable when genes are located on:
The central dogma of molecular biology describes the flow of genetic information as:
In the lac operon of E. coli, the inducer molecule is:
Green Revolution in India is largely attributed to the development of high-yielding varieties of:
Curd formation from milk is due to the activity of:
The enzyme used in recombinant DNA technology to cut DNA at specific sites is:
Bt cotton is resistant to:
In a population, the interaction between two species where both are harmed is called:
The correct sequence of trophic levels in a food chain is:
The concept of “biodiversity hotspots” was given by:
Eutrophication of water bodies is caused mainly by:
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is:
The process of DNA replication is:
In the C₄ pathway of photosynthesis, the first stable product is:
Casparian strip is found in the:
Which of the following is a micronutrient for plants?
Crossing over occurs during which stage of meiosis?
Somaclonal variations are observed in plants raised through:
The Ti plasmid, used extensively in plant genetic engineering, is found in:
In ecological succession, the climax community is characterised by:
The pollination mechanism in Vallisneria (an aquatic plant) is:
The phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross involving incomplete dominance is:
The ozone layer in the atmosphere is mainly found in the:
The net ATP yield from one molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is:
The Watson-Crick model of DNA states that the two strands are:
Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
The enzyme responsible for transcription in eukaryotes that synthesises mRNA is:
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) was invented by:
The part of the flower that develops into a fruit is:
Which of the following is a biodiversity-rich region (hotspot) in India?
Biogas mainly contains:
The species-area relationship described by Alexander von Humboldt is expressed as:
Transpiration is most rapid when:
Section B - Botany (Q136 to Q150)
Attempt any 10 out of 15 questions. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
Emasculation is carried out in plant breeding to:
Cyclosporin A, used as an immunosuppressant, is produced by:
Golden Rice has been engineered to produce:
The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is always:
The endosperm in angiosperms is:
A codon consists of:
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by:
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between:
The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognises the palindromic sequence:
Kranz anatomy is characteristic of:
The role of Taq polymerase in PCR is to:
The vegetative cell in a pollen grain has:
In situ conservation includes:
The 10% law of energy transfer was given by:
Apomixis is:
ZOOLOGY
50 Questions | 180 Marks (Sec A: 35 compulsory + Sec B: attempt 10 of 15)Section A - Zoology (Q151 to Q185)
All 35 questions are compulsory. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
The process of spermatogenesis results in the formation of:
Implantation of the human embryo occurs in the:
Which of the following is NOT a method of contraception?
According to Darwin, natural selection acts on:
The causative organism of malaria is:
Antibodies are produced by:
Which phylum includes organisms with a water vascular system?
The characteristic feature of mammals is:
The connective tissue that connects bone to bone is:
Pepsin acts in the stomach because it is active at:
The oxygen-carrying pigment in human blood is:
The vital capacity of the lungs is the sum of:
The SA node (sinoatrial node) in the heart is located in the:
Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney produce:
The joint between the atlas and axis vertebrae is a:
The part of the brain that controls body temperature, hunger, and thirst is:
Insulin is secreted by:
The acrosome of a sperm is derived from:
MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is considered safe up to:
Analogous organs are a result of:
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) attacks which type of cells?
Bile is produced by the:
The exchange of gases in the lungs occurs at the:
Blood group antigens are present on:
The functional unit of muscle contraction is:
The hormone responsible for the fight-or-flight response is:
Turner’s syndrome is characterised by the karyotype:
The first organisms to appear on Earth were:
Colostrum is important for the newborn because it contains:
Oogenesis in human females produces:
Interferons are proteins released by virus-infected cells that:
The loop of Henle in a nephron is primarily responsible for:
During muscle contraction, which of the following shortens?
The cranial nerve responsible for vision is:
Addison’s disease is caused by the hyposecretion of hormones from:
Section B - Zoology (Q186 to Q200)
Attempt any 10 out of 15 questions. +4 for correct, −1 for incorrect.
The placenta is formed by the interdigitation of chorionic villi with:
STDs that can be transmitted through sexual contact include:
Industrial melanism in peppered moths is an example of:
The widal test is used for the diagnosis of:
Organisms belonging to phylum Cnidaria possess:
The enzyme trypsin acts on:
The Bohr effect describes the influence of CO₂ concentration on:
In humans, erythropoietin is primarily produced by:
The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is:
Gigantism is caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone during:
Adaptive radiation refers to:
Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
The human spinal cord is protected by:
Corpus luteum secretes which hormone to maintain pregnancy?
Darwin’s finches of Galapagos Islands provide evidence of:
PHYSICS - Answer Key (Q1–Q50)
CHEMISTRY - Answer Key (Q51–Q100)
BOTANY - Answer Key (Q101–Q150)
ZOOLOGY - Answer Key (Q151–Q200)
Take the free 1-hour diagnostic and get a predicted NEET score that climbs as you practise. Gamified questions, instant explanations and daily spaced revision across all 96 chapters - no cost, no install.
Get my predicted score →Frequently Asked Questions
Yes. The full 200-question paper and the complete answer key are free to use in your browser - no login, payment or download required.
It follows the NEET UG pattern: 200 questions across Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each subject has Section A (35 compulsory questions) and Section B (attempt 10 of 15). Marking is +4 for a correct answer and -1 for a wrong one, for a total of 720 marks in 3 hours 20 minutes.
Sit it full-length and timed (3 hours 20 minutes), like the real exam. Then check the answer key, mark every silly mistake vs concept gap, and revise those chapters before your next paper.
Yes - four free prediction papers (Sets 1 to 4) and three new prediction papers built specifically for the 21 June 2026 re-exam (Easy, Medium and Hard), all with answer keys.